Central Board of Secondary Education successfully conducted the UGC NET exam on 27 December 2015. on a various selected examination center all over India. This exam is contains three parts as Paper-I, Paper-II and Paper-III. A lot of candidates appeared in this exam. So candidates who appeared in the UGC NET 2015 exam can download CBSC UGC NET 27 December Answer Key which will be released soon on the official website cbsenet.nic.in

Before Official Answer Key of UGC NET Solved paper providing you a tentative and reliable UGC NET Answer Key. Candidate will be eager to know their performance in the examination. So, with Solved paper unofficial Answer Key appeared candidates can check their performance in the examination.

Examination Board Name: Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Examination Name: UGC NET
Date of Exam: 27 December 2015
Official Answer key: Released soon
Unofficial Answer key: Available
Official website: cbsenet.nic.in.

UGC NET Answer Key 27 December 2015:

Note: This paper consists of Sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions out of which the candidate would be required to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In the event of candidate attempting more than Fifty (50) questions, the first Fifty (50) questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated

  1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions greater the demand on the
    (a) Family
    (b) Society
    (c) Teacher
    (d) State
  2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
    (1) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
    (2) It replaces marks with grades.
    (3) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
    (4) helps in reducing examination phobia.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
    (b) (2) and (4)
    (c) (1), (2) and (3)
    (d) (2), (3) and (4)
  3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher
    (1) Full time active involvement in the institutional management
    (2) Setting examples
    (3) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
    (4) Acknowledging mistakes
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (1), (2) and (3)
    (b) (2), (3) and (4)
    (c) (1), (3) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
  4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple choice type questions?
    (a) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
    (b) They are less objective than easy type questions.
    (c) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
    (d) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.
  5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled:
    (a) International Commission on Education Report
    (b) Millennium Development Report
    (c) Learning: The Treasure Within
    (d) World Declaration on Education for All
  6. What are required for good teaching?
    (1) Diagnosis
    (2) Remedy
    (3) Direction
    (4) Feedback
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below
    (a) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
    (b) (1) and (2)
    (c) (2), (3) and (4)
    (d) (3) and (4)
  7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?
    (a) It recognizes knowledge as power.
    (b) It emphasis on people as experts.
    (c) It is a collective process of inquiry.
    (d) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.
  8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of hypothesis?
    (a) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested
    (b) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
    (c) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
    (d) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.
  9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
    (1) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
    (2) Invert authors names (last name first)
    (3) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
    (4) Alphabetically index reference list
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (1) and (2)
    (b) (2), (3) and (4)
    (c) (3) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
  10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?
    (1) It is a form of academic instruction.
    (2) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
    (3) It involves large groups of individuals.
    (4) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
    Select the correct from the codes given below:
    (a) (2) and (3)
    (b) (2) and (4)
    (c) (2), (3) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2) and (4)
  11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
    (a) Rating scale
    (b) Interview
    (c) Questionnaire
    (d) Schedule
  12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
    (a) Thesis format
    (b) Copyright
    (c) patenting polity
    (d) Data sharing policies

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 to 17.

I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card- which is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me. I decided to just write: “Good luck best, Joel”.

It was then that I realized, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.

A poll of 1,000 teens by stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t won a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years –old have never been formed to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter 56% don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.

“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”

Answer the following questions:

  1. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean?
    (a) A state of confusion
    (b) A state of pleasure
    (c) A state of anxiety
    (d) A state of pain
  2. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
    (a) Handwriting
    (b) Photography
    (c) Sketching
    (d) Reading
  3. The entire existence of the author revolves round:
    (1) Computer
    (2) Mobile phone
    (3) Typewriter
    Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (2) only
    (b) (1) and (2) only
    (c) (1), (2) and (3)
    (d) (2) and (3) only
  4. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
    (a) 800
    (b) 560
    (c) 500
    (d) 100
  5. What is the main concern of the author?
    (a) That the teens use social networks for communication.
    (b) that the teens use mobile phones.
    (c) That the teens use computer.
    (d) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
  6. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
    (1) To gather information about student weaknesses
    (2) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
    (3) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
    (4) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
    Identify the correct answer from codes given below:
    (a) (1) and (2) only
    (b) (2), (3) and (4) only
    (c) (1), (2) and (3) only
    (d) (1) only
  7. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pa of ideas is referred to as:
    (a) Systemization
    (b) problem-orientation
    (c) Idea protocol
    (d) Mind mapping
  8. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
    (a) Physical language
    (b) Personal language
    (c) Para language
    (d) Delivery language
  9. Every type of communication is affected by its:
    (a) reception
    (b) Transmission
    (c) Non-regulation
    (d) Context
  10. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are consider as:
    (a) Verbal
    (b) Non-verbal
    (c) Impersonal
    (d) Irrational
  11. Most often, the teacher – student communication is:
    (a) Spurious
    (b) Critical
    (c) Utilitarian
    (d) Conformational
  12. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:
    (a) the use of hyperbole
    (b) the change of voice level
    (c) the use of abstract concept
    (d) eye contact
  13. The next term in the series
    2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ____ is:
    (a) 50
    (b) 57
    (c) 62
    (d) 72
  14. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:
    (a) 80
    (b) 76
    (c) 74
    (d) 72
  15. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West. Turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:
    (a) 20 km
    (b) 14 km
    (c) 12 Km
    (d) 10 km
  16. The next term in the series:
    B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?  is
    (a) j561
    (b) 162Q
    (c) Q62J
    (d) J58Q
  17. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons. Their wives and one son and two daughter to each of the sons were present. The number of females presents in the party is:
    (a) 12
    (b) 14
    (c) 18
    (d) 24
  18. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:
    (a) Son
    (b) Brother
    (c) Uncle
    (d) Father
  19. Consider the argument given below;
    ‘Pre-employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’
    What type of argument it is?
    (a) Deductive
    (b) Analogical
    (c) Psychological
    (d) Biological
  20. Among the following proposition two are related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.
    (1) Some priests are cunning.
    (2) No priest is cunning.
    (3) All priests are cunning.
    (4) Some priests are not cunning.
    (a) (1) and (2)
    (b) (3) and (4)
    (c) (1) and (3)
    (d) (1) and (4)
  21. A cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called:
    (a) An inference
    (b) An argument
    (c) An explanation
    (d) A valid argument
  22. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:
    (A): No man is perfect.
    (R): Some men are not perfect.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
  23. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
    (a) Lexical
    (b) Precising
    (c) Stipulative
    (d) Persuasive
  24. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
    (a) All men are honest
    (b) Some men are honest
    (c) Some men are not honest
    (d) No honest person is man

Given below in table is the decadal data of Population and electrical Power Production of a country.

Based on the above table, answer the questions from SI. No. 37 to 42.

  1. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?
    (a) 1961-71
    (b) 1971-81
    (c) 1991-2001
    (d) 2001-2011
  2. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:
    (a) ~12.21%
    (b) ~9.82%
    (c) ~6.73%
    (d) ~5%
  3. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?
    (a) 40.34 million
    (b) 38.49 million
    (c) 37.28 million
    (d) 36.62 million
  4. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
    (a) 100 W
    (b) 200 W
    (c) 400 W
    (d) 500 W
  5. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?
    (a) 1981-1991
    (b) 1991-2001
    (c) 2001-2011
    (d) 1971-1981
  6. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011?
    (a) 100%
    (b) 300%
    (c) 600%
    (d) 900%
  7. NMEICT stands for:
    (a) National Mission on Education through ICT
    (b) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
    (c) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
    (d) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
  8. Which of the following is an instant messaging application/
    (1) WhatsApp
    (2) Google Talk
    (3) Viber
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (1) and (2) only
    (b) (2) and (3) only
    (c) (1) only
    (d) (1), (2) and (3)
  9. In a computer a byte generally consists of:
    (a) 4 bits
    (b) 8 bits
    (c) 16 bits
    (d) 10 bits
  10. Which of the following is not an input device?
    (a) Microphone
    (b) Keyboard
    (c) Joystick
    (d) Monitor
  11. Which of the following is an open source software?
    (a) MS Word
    (b) Windows
    (c) Mozilla Firefox
    (d) Acrobat Reader
  12. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different person in MS Word?
    (a) Mail Join
    (b) Mail Copy
    (c) Mail insert
    (d) Mail merge
  13. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
    (1) Unvented gas stove
    (2) Wood stoves
    (3) Kerosene heaters
    Choose the correct code:
    (a) (1) and (2) only
    (b) (2) and (3) only
    (c) (2) only
    (d) (1), (2) and (3)
  14. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?
    (a) Pesticides
    (b) Mercury
    (c) Lead
    (d) Ozone
  15. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degreadation.
    Reason (R): The relationship between population growth growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
    Choose the correct answer from the following:
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
  16. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
    (a) Wildfire
    (b) Lightning
    (c) Landslide
    (d) Chemical contamination
  17. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to:
    (a) 175 GW
    (b) 200 GW
    (c) 250 GW
    (d) 350 GW
  18. At present, in terms of per capital energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
    (a) Brazil>Russia>China>India
    (b) Russia>China>India>Brazil
    (c) Russia>China>Brazil>India
    (d) China>Russia>Brazil>India
  19. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan 9RUSA)?
    (1) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
    (2) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty
    (3) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges
    (4) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
    (b) (1), (2) and (3)
    (c) (1), (3) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2) and (4)
  20. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institution is constitutionally prohibited are:
    (1) Religion
    (2) Sex
    (3) Place of birth
    (4) Nationality
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (2), (3) and (4)
    (b) (1), (2) and (3)
    (c) (1), and (2) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
  21. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
    (1) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
    (2) The size and shape of the parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
    (3) First-past-the-Post electoral system is followed.
    (4) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) (1) and (3)
    (b) (1), (2) and (3)
    (c) (1), (3) and (4)
    (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
  22. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in:
    (a) the Union List
    (b) the State List
    (c) the Concurrent List
    (d) the Residuary Powers
  23. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
    (a) 4 years
    (b) 5 years
    (c) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
    (d) not fixed
  24. Which among the following State has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Rajasthan
    (c) Tamil Nadu
    (d) West Bengal


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