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SSC CHSL (10+2) 20 Dec. 2015 Evening Shift Answer Key:

SSC CHSL (10+2) 20 Dec. 2015 Morning Shift Answer Key:

Part-I: General Intelligence

Directions: In the following 5 questions, a series is given, with one term missing Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

  1. 1001, 1004, 1012, 1027, ?
    (a) 1050
    (b) 1048
    (c) 1036
    (d) 1051
  2. 8, 13, 18, 23, ?, 33, 38
    (a) 23
    (b) 26
    (c) 33
    (d) 28
  3. 8, 24, ?, 80, 120
    (a) 40
    (b) 54
    (c) 72
    (d) 48
    (a) J
    (b) H
    (c) U
    (d) N
  5. AC, EG, IK, ?
    (a) ON
    (b) OP
    (c) MO
    (d) LM
  6. A was twice as old as B, two years ago. If the difference in their ages be 2 years, find A’s age.
    (a) 8
    (b) 10
    (c) 4
    (d) 6
  7. If in a business, Alok gains 75% more profit than Akash, then by what percentage profit of Akash is less than the profit of Alok?
    (a) 12.63%
    (b) 30.8%
    (c) 42.85%
    (d) 25%

Directions: In the following 2 questions, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

    (a) STORY
    (b) THEN
    (c) THIS
    (d) THESIS
    (a) PINT
    (b) PLATE
    (c) POLLUTE
    (d) MANTLE
  3. If # means<; O means >;  ¤ means =; then which of the following follows definitely from a O b # c ¤ d?
    (a) b O d
    (b) b ¤ d
    (c) b # d
    (d) a ¤ c
  4. If 0, 1, 2, 3, ….., 9 is written as a, b, c, d, ….. j, then find dc x f – (bf-d)xd.
    (a) abc
    (b) abb
    (c) bce
    (d) bcf
  5. In a certain code ‘CONVENTIONAL’ is written as NOCNEVOITLAN. How is ENTHRONEMENT in that code written?
  6. If FATHER is coded as FBTIES, what should be code for the word ‘SISTER’?
    (a) SHSSEQ
    (b) SHKVET
    (c) SJSUES
    (d) TJTUFS

Directions: In the following 4 questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

  1. 3             4             5
    2             3             4
    1             2             3
    14           29           ?
    (a) 40
    (b) 32
    (c) 50
    (d) 30
  2. 15
    (a) 114, 111, 117
    (b) 111, 114, 117
    (c) 117, 109, 111
    (d) 109, 111, 117

  3. 16
    (a) 56
    (b) 72
    (c) 18
    (d) 42
  4. 17
    (a) 14
    (b) 12
    (c) 8
    (d) 9
  5. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F G and H are sitting around a round table in the same order at equal distances. Their positons are in clockwise direction. If G, who is sitting in the North exchange seat with C, and B exchange seat with F. Now who is sitting to the right of F?
    (a) G
    (b) E
    (c) B
    (d) A
  6. Suresh walked 7 km east and turned to his left walked 4 kms. He then turned to his right and walked 5 kms. Finally, he again turned to his right and walked 4 kms. In which direction is he now, from hi starting point?
    (a) West
    (b) East
    (c) North
    (d) South

Directions: In the following 9 questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

  1. Blacksmith:Hammer::?
    (a) Surgeon:Forceps
    (b) Carpenter:Wood
    (c) Pen:Writer
    (d) Cloth:Tailor
  2. CAT:DDY::BIG:?
    (a) CML
    (b) CEP
    (c) CLL
    (d) CLM
    (a) DTFCR
    (b) DTDAQ
    (c) DTEZQ
    (d) DTDBRC
    (a) LSGF
    (b) LTGI
    (c) LUIH
    (d) LVJH
  5. 4:19::7:?
    (a) 52
    (b) 68
    (c) 49
    (d) 28
  6. 4863-2436::8132-4261::
    (a) 9842-8421
    (b) 8346-4623
    (c) 5926-1813
    (d) 6214-3122
  7. 556:186::951:?
    (a) 317
    (b) 286
    (c) 176
    (d) 217
  8. Bullock:Cart::Horse:?
    (a) Ride
    (b) Race
    (c) Plough
    (d) Tonga
  9. Motor:Coil::?
    (a) Regiment: Soldier
    (b) Wheel:Car
    (c) Wheel:Bearing
    (d) Table:Chair

Directions: In the following 9 questions, find the odd word/number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. (a) President
    (b) Prime Minster
    (c) Minister
    (d) M.L.A
  2. (a) CD
    (b) DF
    (c) AC
    (d) BD
  3. (a) MONR
    (b) NQMJ
    (c) NBJM
    (d) VNHK
  4. (a) MOQ
    (b) BDE
    (c) EGI
    (d) LNP
  5. (a) 56
    (b) 128
    (c) 2
    (d) 16
  6. (a) 32418
    (b) 67626
    (c) 84129
    (d) 47632
  7. (a) 36
    (b) 65
    (c) 100
    (d) 49
  8. (a) Degrade
    (b) Elope
    (c) Abase
    (d) Humiliate
  9. (a) Googly
    (b) Yorker
    (c) Bouncer
    (d) Swing
  10. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
    2. Sand
    3. Rock
    4. Boulder
    5. Hill
    (a) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
    (b) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
    (c) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
    (d) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
  11. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
    (a) cabcb
    (b) bcacb
    (c) bacbc
    (d) abaac

Directions: In the following 2 questions, arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

  1. 1.Yashmak
    2. Yacht
    3. Yawl
    4. Yawn
    (a) 2, 1, 4, 3
    (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
    (c) 2, 1, 3, 4
    (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
  2. 1.Electrolysis
    2. Electrotyping
    3. Electrician
    4. Electroplating
    5. Electrification
    (a) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
    (b) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
    (c) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
    (d) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2

Directions: In the following Two questions. Two statements are given each followed by two conclusions/assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusion/assumption, if any follows from the given statements.

  1. Statements I: The principal will address the students at 10 a.m.
    Statements II: You are requested to take your seats before 10 a.m.
    Assumptions I: If the student is not on his seat before 10 a.m., the function will not start.
    Assumptions II: The function will start as scheduled.
    (a) Neither I nor II is implicit
    (b) Both I and II are implicit.
    (c) Assumption I is implicit.
    (d) Assumption II is implicit.
  2. Statements I: Regular polygon has equal sides and equal angles.
    Statements II: Square is a regular polygon
    Conclusions I: Square has equal sides.
    Conclusions II: Square has equal angles.
    (a) Conclusion I & II both follow
    (b) Conclusion I follows
    (c) Neither I nor II follows
    (d) Conclusion II follows
  3. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in the question figure have been cut.
  4. Which combination figure best represents the relationship between mosquitoes, ants and insects?
  5. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
  6. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
  7. If a paper is folded in particular manner and punch is made, when unfold this paper appears as given below in the question figure. Find out the manner in which the paper is folded and the punch is made from the answer figures given.
  8. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
  9. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from O to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 02, 11 etc, and ‘L’ can be represented by 56, 67 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘BEARD’.
    (a) 88, 13, 43, 44, 21
    (b) 88, 87, 43, 21, 13
    (c) 87, 13, 43, 21, 88
    (d) 87, 13, 43, 88, 21


Part-II: English Language

Directions: In the following Four Questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

  1. To be down to earth.
    (a) To be pretentious
    (b) To be realistic
    (c) To be impractical
    (d) To be unreasonable
  2. This argument does not hold water.
    (a) Seem logical
    (b) seem approvable
    (c) seem acceptable
    (d) seem rejectable
  3. The truant school boy told cock-and-bull stories to escape punishment.
    (a) authentic and realistic
    (b) interesting and thrilling
    (c) absurd and unbelievable
    (d) drab and boring
  4. Rohini reached the examination hall in the nick of time.
    (a) just in time
    (b) very late
    (c) just before time
    (d) just after time

Directions: In the following Four Questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed blacken the circle [·] corresponding to “No Improvement”.

  1. Being a wet day, he stayed at home.
    (a) As it was
    (b) No improvement
    (c) Since
    (d) Though
  2. We’ve got a new big house.
    (a) house big new
    (b) No improvement
    (c) house new big
    (d) big new house
  3. I shall write to you when I reach Agra.
    (a) would write to you
    (b) No improvement
    (c) should write to you
    (d) will write to you
  4. The President of India administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers.
    (a) supervises the oath taking ceremony
    (b) No improvement
    (c) reads out the oath
    (d) imposes the promise

Directions: In the following Four Questions, our of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle [·] in the Answer Sheet.

  1. One who cannot make any mistake
    (a) Inaudible
    (b) Invisible
    (c) Infallible
    (d) Illegible
  2. An act of misappropriation of money
    (a) Misconduct
    (b) Debasement
    (c) Corruption
    (d) Embezzlement
  3. A person in charge of a museum
    (a) Mayor
    (b) Philatelist
    (c) Curator
    (d) Architect
  4. The first public performance of a musical or theatrical work or the first showing of a film
    (a) Premiere
    (b) Debut
    (c) Preview
    (d) Opener

Directions: In the following Four Questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

  1. (a) Alkali
    (b) Alkeli
    (c) Alkalie
    (d) Alkale
  2. (a) Decesieve
    (b) Deciseev
    (c) Decisive
    (d) Decesive
  3. (a) Amateur
    (b) Amateaur
    (c) Amatuer
    (d) Amature
  4. (a) Milennium
    (b) Millennium
    (c) Millanium
    (d) Millenium

Directions: In the following Four Questions, the first and the last part of sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer Sheet.

  1. 1.While
    P. I was walking
    Q. with my brother
    R. I met a monk
    S. in the field
    6. Who was from Nepal.
    (a) PSQR*
    (b) RSQP
    (c) RQSP
    (d) PQSR*
  2. 1.Television,
    P. has become
    Q. the most powerful medium
    R. one of the marvels
    S. of modern science,
    6. Of mass communication today.
    (a) SRQP
    (b) RSQP
    (c) PQRS
    (d) RSPQ
  3. 1.The Narmada Dam Project
    P. many of whom
    Q. the most deprived sections
    R. will displace some people
    S. happen to belong to some of
    6. Of Indian society.
    (a) RPSQ
    (b) SRQP
    (c) PSRQ
    (d) PQRS
  4. 1. All religious show us the path
    P. know that
    Q. and wisemen
    R. God is one
    S. which leads to God
    6. But the paths are different.
    (a) SQPR
    (b) QPRS
    (c) QSPR
    (d) SRQP

Directions: In the following Two Questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

  1. Put up the tent
    (a) The tent is being put up.
    (b) The tent has been put up
    (c) Let the tent being put up
    (d) Let the tent be put up
  2. The agreement between the management and the workers was drafted by an advisory board.
    (a) An advisory board drafted the agreement between the management and the workers.
    (b) An advisory board is drafting the agreement between the management and the workers.
    (c) An advisory board had drafted the agreement between the management and the workers.
    (d) The agreement between the management and the workers is being drafted by an advisory board.

Directions: In the following Two Questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

  1. Robin said, “Hurrah ! I have topped again.”
    (a) Robin exclaimed joyfully that he had topped again.
    (b) Robin exclaimed joyfully that he would have topped again.
    (c) Robin exclaimed joyfully that he has topped again
    (d) Robin exclaimed joyfully that he had been topped again.
  2. Ravi asked me, “Have you seem the Taj Mahal?”
    (a) Ravi asked me did I see the Taj Mahal
    (b) Ravi asked me if I had seen the Taj Mahal
    (c) Ravi asked me if I saw the Taj Mahal
    (d) Ravi asked me if I have seen the Taj Mahal.

Directions: In the following Ten Questions, in the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
Smile, they say, and soon there will be miles and miles of smiles. If we keep (i) ourselves and do not mix with other, we shall be left alone to ponder (ii) the misfortunes of life. No body likes to come across a (iii) and self-centred person. People (iv) gregarious and outgoing souls who are prepared to share their joys and sorrows and have the (v) to laugh (vi) their problems and miseries. Laughter brings people (vii) whereas keeping to oneself distance people. It has (viii) been rightly said that laughter is the shortest distance between two person Once they (ix) together, the circle of acquaintance, and consequently friendship (x), has making the world a happy place to live in.

  1. (i)
    (a) with
    (b) into
    (c) by
    (d) to
  2. (ii)
    (a) at
    (b) upon
    (c) over
    (d) into
  3. (iii)
    (a) glum
    (b) unselfish
    (c) kind
    (d) comic
  4. (iv)
    (a) hate
    (b) opt
    (c) like
    (d) dislike
  5. (v)
    (a) intention
    (b) sense
    (c) capacity
    (d) feeling
  6. (vi)
    (a) on
    (b) at
    (c) over
    (d) away
  7. (vii)
    (a) far
    (b) apart
    (c) home
    (d) closer
  8. (viii)
    (a) however
    (b) therefore
    (c) hence
    (d) so
  9. (ix)
    (a) sit
    (b) are
    (c) go
    (d) come
  10. (x)
    (a) grows
    (b) lessens
    (c) widens
    (d) broadens

Directions: In the following Four Questions. Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the circle [·] corresponding to the appropriate correct option. If the sentence is free from error, blacked the circle [·] corresponding to “No Error” in the Answer Sheet.

  1. It is painful to saw that some youngsters are killing time without doing anything useful.
    (a) killing time without doing anything useful
    (b) No error
    (c) It is painful to saw that
    (d) Some youngsters are
  2. One should have their teeth checked every six months.
    (a) every six months
    (b) No error
    (c) One should have
    (d) their teeth checked
  3. A honest person is upright in speech, thought and deed.
    (a) in speech, though and deed.
    (b) No error
    (c) A honest person
    (d) is upright
  4. We, in India can look forward to a comfortable and settle life in the twenty-first century.
    (a) life in the twenty-first century.
    (b) No error
    (c) We, in India can look forward
    (d) to a comfortable and settle

Directions: In the following Four Questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle [·] in the Answer Sheet.

  1. Politics is the last ____ of scoundrels.
    (a) retort
    (b) report
    (c) result
    (d) resort
  2. Take care _____ your health.
    (a) about
    (b) over
    (c) for
    (d) of
  3. The terrorists made a vain attempt to ______ the bridge.
    (a) blow up
    (c) blow out
    (c) blow down
    (d) blow over
  4. The speeding car ____ a man this morning.
    (a) pushed out
    (b) hit about
    (c) hit out
    (d) knocked down

Directions: In the following Four Questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

  1. Mistake
    (a) Error
    (b) Accurate
    (c) Mistook
    (d) Precise
  2. Annoy
    (a) Revoke
    (b) Lazy
    (c) Offend
    (d) Refuse
  3. Acquire
    (a) Procure
    (b) Lose
    (c) Renounce
    (d) Relinquish
  4. Filthy
    (a) Immaculate
    (b) Dirty
    (c) Clean
    (d) Spotless

Directions: In the following Four Questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

  1. Concur
    (a) Weak
    (b) Praise
    (c) Disagree
    (d) Agree
  2. Accumulate
    (a) Dismiss
    (b) Below
    (c) Aware
    (d) Disperse
  3. Elementary
    (a) Complex
    (c) Compound
    (c) Hard
    (d) Involved
  4. Resist
    (a) Decline
    (b) Yield
    (c) Adjust
    (d) Remain

Part-III: Quantitative Aptitude

  1. By selling 12 kg of potatoes for Rs.63, a shopkeeper gains 5%. What does his gain or loss percent by selling 50 kg of the same potatoes for Rs.247.50?
    (a) No profit no loss
    (b) 2.5% loss
    (c) 1% profit
    (d) 1% loss
  2. The average marks of 50 students in a class is 72. The average marks of boys and girls in that subject are 70 and 75 respectively. The number of boys in the class is
    (a) 35
    (b) 25
    (c) 30
    (d) 20
  3. In a class there are 30 boys and their average age is 17 years. On one boy aged 18 years leaving the class and another joining, the average age becomes 16.9 years. The age of the new boy is
    (a) 11 years
    (b) 13 years
    (c) 15 years
    (d) 25 years
  4. Two numbers are in ratio 5:8. If their difference is 48, then the smallest number is
    (a) 96
    (b) 128
    (c) 64
    (d) 80
  5. A shopkeeper sold an article at a loss of 20%. But if he could sell it at Rs.200 more, he could earn a profit of 5%. The cost price of the article is
    (a) Rs.1,000
    (b) Rs.1,200
    (c) Rs.600
    (d) Rs.800
  6. A man gives 50% of his money to his son and 30% to his daughter. 80% of the rest is donated to a trust. If he is left with Rs.16,000 now, how much money did he have in the beginning?
    (a) Rs.8,00,000
    (b) Rs.80,000
    (c) Rs.4,00,000
    (d) Rs.40,000
  7. The simple interest on Rs.36,000 for the period from 5th January to 31st May, 2013 at 9.5% per annum is
    (a) Rs.1,425
    (b) Rs.1,400
    (c) Rs.1,368
    (d) Rs.1,338
  8. Two trains start at the same time from Aligarh and Delhi and proceed towards each other at the rate at the rate of 14 km and 21 km per hour respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 70 km more than the other. The distance between two station is
    (a) 210 km
    (b) 300 km
    (c) 140 km
    (d) 350 km
  9. Two trains of lengths 150 m and respectively are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. If their speeds be 50 km/hr and 58 km/hr respectively, in what time will they cross eachother?
    (a) 15 seconds
    (b) 30 seconds
    (c) 11 seconds
    (d) 22 seconds
  10. Height of a prism-shaped part of a machine is 8 cm and its base is an isosceles triangle, whose each of the equal sides is 5 cm and remaining side is 6 cm. The volume of the part is
    (a) 120 cm
    (b) 86 cm
    (c) 90 cm
    (d) 96 cm
  11. The rate of simple interest per annum of bank being decreased from 5% to 3.5% the annual income of a person from interest was less b Rs.105. The sum deposited at the bank was
    (a) Rs.7,200
    (b) Rs.6,800
    (c) Rs.7,000
    (d) Rs.6,000
  12. By melting two solid metallic spheres or radii 1 cm and 6 cm, a hollow sphere of thickness 1 cm is made. The external radius of the hollow sphere will be
    (a) 6 cm
    (b) 7 cm
    (c) 8 cm
    (d) 9 cm
  13. The hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 39 cm and the difference of other two sides is 21 cm. Then the area of the triangle is
    (a) 450 sq. cm
    (b) 540 sq. cm
    (c) 180 sq. cm
    (d) 270 sq. cm
  14. x + 1/x =3, then the value of x5 + 1/x5 is
    (a) 132
    (b) 122
    (c) 123
    (d) 110
  15. If (2, 0) is a solution of the linear equation 2x+3y=K, then the value of K is
    (a) 5
    (b) 2
    (c) 4
    (d) 6
  16. A cuboidal shaped water tank, 2.1 m long and 1.5 m broad is half filled with water. If 630 litres more water is poured into that tank, the water level will rise
    (a) 0.20 metre
    (b) 0.18 cm
    (c) 2 cm
    (d) 0.15 cm
  17. If the sum of all interior angles of a regular polygon is 14 right angles, then its number of sides is
    (a) 9
    (b) 7
    (c) 6
    (d) 8
  18. If a/b=25/6, then the value of (a2-b2)/(a2+b2) is
    (a) 661/589
    (b) 625/36
    (c) 589/651
    (d) 589/661
  19. The side BC of a triangle ABC is proceed to D. If ÐACD=112o and ∠B =3/4∠A, then the measure of ∠Bis
    (a) 48o
    (b) 45o
    (c) 64o
    (d) 30o
  20. The graph of linear equation y=x passes through the point
    (a) (1,1)
    (b) (- ½, 1/2 )
    (c) 3/2, -3/2)
    (d) (0, 3/2)
  21. The value of the expression
    √(6+√(6+√(6+…..+ )))upto ∞ is
    (a) 3
    (b) 2
    (c) 30
    (d) 5
  22. The measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon with 8 sides is
    (a) 120o
    (b) 100o
    (c) 45o
    (d) 135o
  23. The medians CD and BE of a triangle ABC intersect each other at O. The ratio of DODE: DABC is equal to
    (a) 4:3
    (b) 3:4
    (c) 1:12
    (d) 12:1
  24. If sin A- cos A =(√3-1)/2, then the value of sin A . cos A is
    (a) 3/2
    (b) √3/4
    (c) 1/√3
    (d) √3/2
  25. If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral with ∠A=50o, ∠B=80o, then ∠C and ∠D are
    (a) 115o, 115o
    (b) 110o ,120o
    (c) 130o, 100o
    (d) 100o, 130o
  26. If the compliment of an angle is one-fourth of its supplementary angle, then the angle is
    (a) 30o
    (b) 90o
    (c) 120o
    (d) 60o
  27. If tan (π/2 -a/2)=√3, then the value of cos α is
    (a) 1/2
    (b) 0
    (c) √3/1
    (d) 1/√2
  28. The value of cos 1o cos 2o cos 3o …. cos 180o is
    (a) 1
    (b) √3/2
    (c) ½
    (d) 0
  29. If cos 20o =m and cos 70o=n, then the value of m2+n2 is
    (a) 3/2
    (b) 1/√2
    (c) ½
    (d) 1
  30. If sin(90o-θ)+cos θ = √2 cos (90o-θ), then the value of cosec θ is
    (a) √(3/2)
    (b) 1/√2
    (c) 1/√3
    (d) 2/3
  31. A number between 1000 and 2000 which when divided by 30, 36, & 80 gives a remainder 11 in each case is
    (a) 1641
    (b) 1712
    (c) 1523
    (d) 1451
  32. 51% of a whole number is 714.25% of that number is
    (a) 450
    (b) 550
    (c) 250
    (d) 350
  33. Arrangement of the fractions
    4/3.-2/9, -7/8, 5/12 into ascending order are
    (a) -7/8, -2/9, 4/3, 5/12
    (b) -2/9, -7/8, 5/12, 4/3
    (c) -2/9, -7/8, 4/3, 5/12
    (d) -7/8, -2/9, 5/12, 4/3
  34. Janardan completes 2/3 of his work in 10 days. Time he will take to complete 3/5 of the same work, is
    (a) 6 days
    (b) 9 days
    (c) 4 days
    (d) 8 days
  35. Work done by (x+4) men in (x+5) days in equal to the work done by (x-5) men in (x+20) days. Then the value of x is
    (a) 25
    (b) 30
    (c) 15
    (d) 20
  36. The difference between the greatest and least prime numbers which are less than 100 is
    (a) 97
    (b) 94
    (c) 95
    (d) 96
  37. The number between 4000 and 5000 that is divisible by each of 12, 18, 21 and 32 is
    (a) 4032
    (b) 4302
    (c) 4203
    (d) 4023
  38. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3:2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s share in profit is Rs.8,550. Then total profit is
    (a) Rs.15,735
    (b) Rs.14,250
    (c) Rs.15,000
    (d) Rs.15,760
  39. If A:B=2:1 & A:C=1:3, then A:B:C
    (a) 1:2:6
    (b) 3:2:1
    (c) 2:1:6
    (d) 1:3:2
  40. After allowing 15% discount, the selling price of radio becomes Rs.255. The marked price is
    (a) Rs.600
    (b) Rs.400
    (c) Rs.300
    (d) Rs.500
  41. The list price of an electric fan is Rs.300. If two successive discounts of 15% and 10% are allowed, its selling price would be
    (a) Rs.225
    (b) Rs.230
    (c) Rs.229.50
    (d) Rs.227.50

Directions: Revenue earned by the Central Government is given in Pie-chart. Study the pie-chart and answer 4 questions.

  1. The ratio of revenue earned from excise duty and custom duty to that of others is
    (a) 11:3
    (b) 11:2
    (c) 11:4
    (d) 11:5
  2. If the income of Central Government from Excise Duty is Rs.28,618 crores, then the total revenue earned by the government is
    (a) Rs.58,900 crore
    (b) Rs.47,200 crore
    (c) Rs.69,800 crore
    (d) Rs.45,600 crore
  3. If the percentage of revenue earned by the Central Government from Corporation Tax is x times to that of the percentage of money earned from Excise Duty, then the value of x is
    (a) 41/9
    (b) 9/41
    (c) 14/41
    (d) 41/14
  4. The ratio of revenue of the Central Government earned from the Custom Duty and Income Tax is
    (a) 14:41
    (b) 9:26
    (c) 10:9
    (d) 7:13

Directions: The bar graph is representing marks of a student in different subjects. Study the bar graph and answer 5 questions.

  1. At what subject the student is sharp?
    (a) English
    (b) Mathematics
    (c) Science
    (d) History
  2. In which subject the student is poor?
    (a) English
    (b) Mathematics
    (c) Science
    (d) History
  3. What are the average marks obtained by the student?
    (a) 57
    (b) 63
    (c) 80
    (d) 48
  4. What is the average percentage obtained by the student?
    (a) 80%
    (b) 63%
    (c) 57%
    (d) 90%
  5. What is the ratio of the highest marks to the lowest marks obtained by the student?
    (a) 2:11
    (b) 9:2
    (c) 2:9
    (d) 11:2

Part-IV: General Awareness

  1. The state with highest production of wheat in year 2012 – 13 is
    (a) Tami Nadu
    (b) Uttar Pradesh
    (c)  Haryana
    (d) West Bengal
  2. According to 2011 Census, the State having maximum population is
    (a) Tamil Nadu
    (b) Kerala
    (c) Uttar Pradesh
    (d) Maharashtra
  3. Expand NABARD.
    (a) National Bank for Agri Related development
    (b) National Bank for Agriculture and Resource development
    (c) National Bank for Asian Research Development
    (d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  4. A demand curve, which is parallel to the horizontal axis, showing quantity has the peace elasticity equal to
    (a) One
    (b) Less than one
    (c) Infinite
    (d) Zero
  5. As a result of higher rate of inflation in India, the U. S. A. dollar will.
    (a) Constant
    (b) Negligible
    (c) Appreciate
    (d) Depreciate
  6. How many members are there in Public Accounts Committee?
    (a) 28 members
    (b) 30 members
    (c) 20 members
    (d) 22 members
  7. Who is the only second vice president of India to get a second consecutive term after S. Radhakrishnan?
    (a) B. S. Shekhawat
    (b) M. H. Ansari
    (c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
    (d) K. R. Narayan
  8. An ordinance issued by the Governer has to be passed by the assembly within
    (a) 10 weeks
    (b) 12 weeks
    (c) 6 weeks
    (d) 8 weeks
  9. Find the odd one:
    (a) Yajurveda
    (b) Vishnu Purana
    (c) Rigveda
    (d) Samveda
  10. Who has authored the book “The Kingdom of God is Within you”?
    (a) Henry David
    (b) Mahatma Gandhi
    (c) John Ruskin
    (d) Leo Tolstoy
  11. Which decade is called as the “Era of Decolonisation”?
    (a) 1980’s
    (b) 1990’s
    (c) 1970’s
    (d) 1950’s
  12. Who was the founder of the Indian National Army?
    (a) Subhas Chandra Bose
    (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    (c) Gandhi Ji
    (d) Nehru
  13. Which Indian ruler fought the Kalinga War?
    (a) Chandragupta Maurya
    (b) Shivaji
    (c) Ashoka
    (d) Samudragupta
  14. As per Census of India, an Urban area with a population from 50,000 to 99,999 is named as
    (a) Class III town
    (b) Class IV town
    (c) Class I town
    (d) Class II town*
  15. Which is the major cause of ‘October Heat’?
    (a) Very low-velocity winds
    (c) High temperature associated with high humidity
    (b) Low pressure system over the Indo-Gangetic plains
    (d) Hot and dry weather
  16. Name the Republic which was a confederacy of tribes in the 6th B.C.
    (a) Vajji
    (b) Kosala
    (c) Avanti
    (d) Gandhara
  17. Which of the following was the founder of the house of Peshawar?
    (a) Balaji Vishwanath
    (b) Balaji Baji Rao
    (c) Parsuram Triamusuk
    (d) Ramachandra Pant
  18. Seismography is the science of
    (a) Earthquakes
    (b) Volcanoes
    (c) Mountains
    (d) Rivers
  19. Which of the following is true with reference to blood platelets?
    (a) They are involved in phagocytosis
    (b) They have a pigment called haemoglobin
    (c) They are also called thrombocytes
    (d) They have prominent nuclei
  20. The basic unit of biosystematics is
    (a) Ecotype
    (b) Florotype
    (c) Genotype
    (d) Phenotype
  21. Which endorine gland is found in chest cavity?
    (a) Thymus gland
    (b) Adrenal gland
    (c) Thyroid gland
    (d) Pineal gland
  22. An organism that transmits disease from one individual to another is called
    (a) Fragment
    (b) Vector
    (c) Clone
    (d) Hybrid
  23. A semi-enclosed coastal body of water which has a free connection with the open sea is called
    (a) Fjord
    (b) Cove
    (c) Ria coast
    (d) Estuary
  24. Cuba is the largest producer of
    (a) Sugar
    (b) Wheat
    (c) Rice
    (d) Barley
  25. If density of oxygen is 16 times that of hydrogen, what will be their corresponding ratio of velocity of sound?
    (a) 2:1
    (b) 1:16
    (c) 1:4
    (d) 4:1
  26. S.I. unit of Magnetic flux is
    (a) weber/m
    (b) weber/m4
    (d) weber
  27. Which of the following colour of light deviates least through the prism?
    (a) green
    (b) violet
    (c) red
    (d) yellow
  28. Hydraulic brakes work on the principal of
    (a) Newton’s law
    (b) Bhernoulli’s theorem
    (d) Thomson’s law
    (c) Pascal’s law
  29. The process of arranging data in logical sequence is called
    (a) Reproducing
    (b) Summarizing
    (c) Sorting
    (d) Classifying
  30. The part of brain which controls emotional reaction in our body is
    (a) Cerebrum
    (b) Meaninges
    (c) Thalamus
    (d) Hypothalamus
  31. Which part of the cinchona yields a drug?
    (a) Bark
    (b) Endosperm
    (c) Leaf
    (d) Pericarp
  32. The deterioration of a metal by an electrochemical process is commonly termed as
    (a) Corrosion
    (b) Passivation
    (c) Abrasion
    (d) Erosion
  33. To reduce tooth decay most toothpastes contain a
    (a) Fluoride
    (b) Iodide
    (c) Chloride
    (d) Bromide
  34. An example of hormone is
    (a) Renin
    (b) Oxytocin
    (c) Peprin
    (d) Cytosine
  35. Name the two research stations maintained by Indian in Antarctica.
    (a) Sagar Nidhi kand Yamunotri
    (b) None of these
    (c) Maitri and Bharti
    (d) Gangotri and Himadri
  36. The ‘EL Nino’ phenomena which sparks climatic extreme around the globe, originates in the
    (a) Pacific Ocean
    (b) Indian Ocean
    (c) Atlantic Ocean
    (d) Sea of China
  37. The term GIGO is related to
    (a) Versatility
    (b) Automatic
    (c) Accuracy
    (d) Flexibility
  38. The number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine in DNA is
    (a) 3
    (b) 4
    (c) 1
    (d) 2
  39. Pawel Pawlikowski’s film ‘Ida’ won the Best Foreign Language Film Award at the 87th Academy Awards in 2015. This film is from which country?
    (a) Canada
    (b) South Africa
    (c) Argentina
    (d) Poland
  40. Who won Australian Open Mixed Doubles Final 2015?
    (a) Djokovic (Serbia) and Serena Williams (U.S.A)
    (b) Murray (U.K) and Maria Sharapova (Russia)
    (c) Marina Hingis (Switzerland) and Leander Paes (India)
    (d) Kristina Mladenovi (France) and Daniel Nester (Canada)
  41. Which city will host the 2022 common Wealth Games (CWG)?
    (a) Montreal
    (b) Colombo
    (c) Durban
    (d) Glasgow
  42. Which gas emitted by power stations causes acid rain?
    (a) Sulphur dioxide
    (b) Helium
    (c) Nitrogen
    (d) Carbon dioxide
  43. What is the famous ‘Chipko movement associated with?
    (a) Saving the wetland
    (b) None of these
    (c) Trees
    (d) Saving the tigers
  44. Who is the author of the book “ The Three Mistakes In My life”?
    (a) Chetan Bhagat
    (b) Amrita Pritam
    (c) Jhumpa Lahiri
    (d) Ruskin Bond
  45. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games gold in 400 m runs?
    (a) Kamaljit Sandhu
    (b) Shiny Abraham
    (c) P.T. Usha
    (d) Sania Mirza
  46. Who is invented the mobile phone?
    (a) Raymond Samuel Tomlinson
    (b) Chuck Hull
    (c) Martin Cooper
    (d) Tim Berners- Lee
  47. Who was the creator of the famous Rock Garden of Chandigarh?
    (a) Charles Corbusier
    (b) Edward Baker
    (c) Nek Chand
    (d) Khuswant Singh
  48. Kathakali dance form is associated with which State?
    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Manipur
    (c) Kerala
    (d) Tamil Nadu
  49. India’s ranking on Global Corruption Index 2014 has been placed at ____ rank among 175 nations.
    (a) 85th
    (b) 87th
    (c) 81st
    (d) 83rd
  50. R K Laxman died on January 26 2015. He was a leading ______ of India
    (a) Space Scientist
    (b) Kathakali Dancer
    (c) Playback Singer
    (d) Cartoonist


  1. Pingback: SSC CHSL (10+2) Evening Shift Answer Key 20 Dec 2015 - Solved PapersSolved Papers

  2. Sarvesh

    Blacksmith : Hammer means Hammer is an instrument he works with.
    So, Surgeon : Forceps should be the answer as Forceps is an instrument for Surgeon

    But how it would be Carpenter : Wood as answer..Wood is raw material for Carpenter.

    Someone please give reply

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