Download her SSC CHSL (LDC & DEO) (10+2) Answer Key. Staff Service Selection commission successfully conducted the Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam on 06 December 2015 in two shift Morning Shift and Evening shift all over India in various selected center. SSC CHSL Exam held for recruitment of Postal Assistants/ Sorting Assistants. Data Entry Operator (DEO) and Lower Division Clerks (LDC) in the various central government sector departments. A large number of candidates appeared in this written exam. Official Answer Key will be released soon on official website ssc.nic.in.

Candidates will be eager to know their performance in the examination. So, Before Official SSC CHSL (LDC/DEO) (10+2) Answer Key, Solved paper team providing you an unofficial SSC CHSL (10+2) Answer Key. Through this unofficial SSC CHSL Answer Key candidates can check their performance in the examination and can their satisfaction. This exam consists four subject, SSC CHSL LDC & DEO exam pattern is as follow:

Subjects Question Marks
General Intelligence
50
50
English Language
50
50
Quantitative Aptitude
50
50
General Awareness
50
50

Every part of CHSL question paper consists four objective option and every question has a negative marking.

## SSC CHSL (10+2) LDC & DEO Evening Shift Answer Key 06 December 2015:

Department Name: Staff Selection Commission
Exam Name: Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) exam
Vacancies Post: Lower Division Clerk (LDC), Data Entry Operator (DEO), Sorting Assistant (SA) & Postal Assistant (PA)
Number of Vacancies:
Exam Pattern: Multiple Choice type
Total Marks: 200
Duration: 120 minutes
Further Procedure: Skill Test Typing Test
Official Website:ssc.nic.in

## SSC CHSL Answer Key 06 December 2015:

Part-I: General Intelligence

1. Find the number of triangles in the following figure:

(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 14
(d) 12
2. In a line, Naresh is 17th from the left & 22nd from the right. How many students are there in the line?
(a) 37
(b) 40
(c) 38
(d) 39
3. In a class of 45, Neha’s rank is 15th from first, what is her rank from the last?
(a) 32
(b) 31
(c) 33
(d) 30
4. Find out the set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternative which is most like the given in the question.
(12, 24, 144)
(a) (14, 28, 144)
(b) (13, 26, 169)
(c) (15, 45, 90)
(d) (10, 25, 100)
5. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
HARBINGER
(a) GARBAGE
(b) BARRING
(c) RANGER
(d) GARNER

Directions (Question Nos. 6 to 9):  A series is given, with one/two-term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

1. -1, 0, 3, 8, 15, ?
(a) 25
(b) 23
(c) 26
(d) 24
2. 6, 2, 9, 4, 12, _, _
(a) 8, 24
(b) 13, 15
(c) 6, 15
(d) 4, 13
3. A C E Z X V G I K T R P _
(a) M
(b) N
(c) L
(d) O
4. A D H M S _
(a) Z
(b) W
(c) X
(d) T
5. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 03,14 etc., and ‘U’ can be represented by 56, 55 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘BRIDE’

(a) 96, 03, 75, 67, 22
(b) 96, 03, 75, 85, 22
(c) 55, 57, 21, 22, 86
(d) 55, 21, 57, 86, 22

Directions (Question Nos. 11 to 13): Select the missing number from the given responses.

1. (a) 65
(b) 68
(c) 55
(d) 60

2. (a) 54
(b) 42
(c) 45
(d) 58

3. (a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 18
4. Karthik travelled 3 km east, then took a right and travelled 4 kms. How far is he from starting point?
(a) 12 kms
(b) 7 kms
(c) 3 kms
(d) 5 kms

Directions (Question Nos. 15 to 23): Select the related word/ letters/ number from the given alternatives.

1. 144:13::49:?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 8
2. ABDE:GHJK::MNPQ:?
(a) RSUV
(b) STVX
(c) CEFH
(d) RTUW
3. 6:42::5:?
(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 30
4. ACE:GIK::MOQ:?
(a) SUW
(b) RTU
(c) VXZ
(d) STU
5. Ant:Fly:Bee::Hamster:Squirrel:?
(a) Spider
(b) Cat
(c) Rodent
(d) Mouse
6. Brick: Wall::Cell:?
(a) DNA
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Tissue
(d) Organs
7. Hockey: India:: Baselball:?
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) Australia
(d) Russia
(a) Solunoit
(b) Solution
(c) Noilosut
(d) Pollution
9. 21:3::574:?
(a) 82
(b) 113
(c) 97
(d) 23

Directions (Questions Nos. 24 to 32): Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

1. (a) 100
(b) 125
(c) 343
(d) 216
2. (a) 15:46
(b) 13:40
(c) 8:25
(d) 6:22
3. (a) PSV
(b) FIL
(c) VXB
(d) DHK
4. (a) 81
(b) 71
(c) 51
(d) 21
5. (a) PORTRAIT
(b) PAINT
(c) SKETCH
(d) DRAW

6. (a) GLOVES
(b) SWEATER
(c) SHAWL
(d) UMBRELLA
7. (a) HAND
(b) NOSE
(c) EYES
(d) MOUTH
8. (a) RQPO
(b) HNOP
(c) HGFE
(d) VUTS

Directions (Question Nos. 33 to 34): Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. 1) Vorcious
2) Voucher
3) Vortex
4) Voluntary
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
2. 1) Absolute
2) Abrasive
3) Absorption
4) Abundance
5) Abiogenesis
(a) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4
(d) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
3. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:
ENDEARMENT
(a) TEMPER
(b) TENDER
(c) MEANS
(d) TENT
4. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
ab_cba_bcc_aabccb__bccba
(a) abcab
(b) cabaa
(c) abbac
(d) ccaab
5. Of the 5 towns A, B, C, D and E situated close to each other. A is to west of B,C is to the south of A,E is to the north of B and D is to the east of E. Then C is in which direction with respect to D?
(a) North-East
(b) South-East
(c) South-West
(d) North-West
6. Which one of the following is water image of “COMMISSION”?

Correct Option is (B).

Directions (Question Nos. 39 to 40): One/two statement are given, each followed by two conclusion/assumption, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusion/ assumptions, if any follows the given statements.

1. Statement
Travelling by metro in Delhi is more convenient and economical
Assumptions
Other modes of transport are not available
II. Metro service are reasonably good.
(a) Only Assumption II is implicit
(b) Neither I nor II are implicit
(c) Both I and II are implicit
(d) Only Assumption I is implicit.
2. Statement
Continuous training is essential for all employees to increase their productivity.
Assumptions
Training is an essential component for productivity.
II. Profitability & productivity are supplementary to each other.
(a) Assumption I is implicit
(b) Neither assumption I nor II are implicit
(c) Only assumption II is implicit
(d) Both assumption I and II are implicit
3. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Correct Option is (D).
4. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Correct Option is (C).
5. Find the wrong number in the given series?
15, 28, 30, 39, 48
(a) 39
(b) 15
(c) 28
(d) 30
6. If BOY is represented as 42, then GIRL is represented as:
(a) 40
(b) 46
(c) 43
(d) 48
7. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Correct Option is (D).
8. If+ means ÷, ÷means x, and x means +, then following will be:
64+8×32÷4
(a) 160
(b) 144
(c) 136
(d) 128
9. Some equations have been solved on the basis of certain system. Find the correct answer for the equations on that basis?
If 72×19=23, 13×48=35 and 16×43=18 then 39x 22=?
(a) 31
(b) 51
(c) 21
(d) 27
10. Identiy the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below:

Correct Option is (A).
11. What is the best way to order the progression in Hardware?
1. Silicon chips
2. Transistors
3. Vacuum tube
4. Integrated circuits
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
12. If LISTEN is coded as 593417 then SILENT is code as:
(a) 391754
(b) 591743
(c) 591734
(d) 395174

Part-II: English language

Directions (Question Nos. 51 to 60): In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternative and fill in the blanks.
Although we can __I__ the  __ II__ bodies of our solar system __III__ a telescope, it is only __IV__ who can __V__ the depts. Of outer space. It is reported that they have seen __VI_ galaxies, stars taking __VII__ and __VIII_, and ‘black holes’. They say that the deeper they look __IX__ the universe, the more they know __X___ the universe originated.

1. (a) (I) observe
(b) (I) find
(c) (I) look
(d) (I) reach
2. (a) (II) heaven
(b) (II) heavy
(c) (II) heavenly
(d) (II) heavier
3. (a) (III) with
(b) (III) through
(c) (III) at
(d) (III) by
4. (a) (IV) astrology
(b) (IV) astronomy
(c) (IV) astronomy
(d) (IV) astrologers
5. (a) (V) view
(b) (V) overview
(c) (V) viewed
(d) (V) views
6. (a) (VI) stunned
(b) (VI) stunning
(c) (VI) stun
(d) (VI) shine
7. (a) (VII) birth
(b) (VII) berth
(c) (VII) born
(d) (VII) borne
8. (a) (VIII) die
(b) (VIII) dyeing
(c) (VIII) died
(d) (VIII) dying
9. (a) (IX) at
(b) (IX) through
(c) (IX) on
(d) (IX) into
10. (a) (X) how
(b) (X) where
(c) (X) why
(d) (X) what

Directions (Question Nos. 61 to 64): Some parts of the sentence have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the circle corresponding to the appropriate correct option. If a sentence is free from error, blacken the circle corresponding to “No Error” option in the Answer Sheet.

1. They had to put of the garden party because of the heavy rain.
(a) put of the garden party
(c) because of the heavy rain
(d) No Error
2. Scientist how hope that cloning can successfully be conducted in human beings in the near future.
(a) human beings in the near
(b) can successfully be conducted in
(c) Scientist now hope that cloning
(d) No Error
3. What delicious flavour these mangoes have !
(a) have !
(b) flavour these mangoes
(c) What delicious
(d) No Error
4. When one takes great risks they must be prepared for great losses.
(a) When one takes great risks
(b) for great losses
(c) they must be prepared
(d) No Error

Directions (Question Nos. 65 to 68): The 1st and the last part of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split is into four parts and named P, Q, R & S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer Sheet.

1. It is those good works
P. that lead to peak performance
Q. Which we do with passion
R. our understanding of our purpose
S. and which come to reflect
6. In this life
(a) QPSR
(b) PRQS
(c) SQRP
(d) SRQP
2. Moisturisers for the face
P. as oily ones may block
Q. in greater concentration on the face
R. the oil glands foun
S. should be chosen carefully.
6. And cause pimple/acne to break out.
(a) SQPR
(b) SRPQ
(c) SPRQ
(d) SPQR
3. Everyone
P. the case calmly
Q. acknowledges
R. who knows you
S. when he considers
6. That you have been wronged.
(a) RQSP
(b) SRPQ
(c) PSQR
(d) QRSP
4. I am a self-confessed technophobe.
P. I believe that computer is responsible for the dying of the art of conversation.
Q. I have come to hate technology and the way it dominates every aspect of life.
R. For many, it has become the most important object both in home and at the workplace.
S. One of the worst offenders is the computer.
6. Small wonder then, that I have managed to keep this ubiquitous machine out of my home.
(a) SRPQ
(b) PQRS
(c) QSRP
(d) RPSQ

Directions (Question Nos. 69 to 72): Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer Sheet.

1. Lasting for a very short time.
(a) Friable
(b) Eternal
(c) Metronimic
(d) Ephemeral
2. Rules governing socially acceptable behavious
(a) Behavious
(b) Etiquetter
(c) Formality
(d) Politeness
3. A person who is easily deceived or ticked
(a) Gullible
(b) Tangible
(c) Trouble
(d) Trickster
4. Submission to all that happens as inevitable.
(a) Fatalism
(b) Superstition
(c) Pragmatism
(d) Pessimism

Direction (Question Nos. 73 to 76): Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

1. Limpid
(a) clear
(b) lopsided
(c) crippled
(d) ruffled
2. Merge
(a) blend
(b) meet
(c) contact
(d) mixture
3. Gourmet
(a) fussy
(b) praise
(c) constant
(d) gastronome
4. Vocation
(a) holiday
(b) breakup
(c) virtue
(d) occupation

Directions (Question Nos. 77 to 78): A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

1. We must take care of our parents.
(a) Our parents must be cared for by us
(b) Our parents are taken care by us
(c) Our parents had been taken care of by us
(d) Our parents will be taken care of by us.
(a) Please be the door closed by you.
(b) You close the door yourself.
(c) Let the door be closed by you.
(d) You please close the door.

Directions (Question Nos. 79 to 82): Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

1. Demand
(a) request
(b) supply
(c) claim
(d) petition
2. Descent
(a) dissent
(b) assent
(c) ascent
(d) discern
3. Notorious
(a) prominent
(b) reputed
(c) infamous
(d) honourable
4. Illicit
(a) noble
(b) legal
(c) approved
(d) correct

Directions (Question Nos. 83 to 86): Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/phrase underlined. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

1. He has made a dog’s breakfast of these accounts.
(a) A breakfast for the dogs.
(b) A breakfast being served by the dogs.
(c) A total mess.
(d) An accurate summary.
2. A Sacred Cow
(a) a person never to be criticised
(b) a saintly person
(d) a very religious person
3. To shun evil company.
(a) To let loose evil company
(b) To give up evil company
(c) To put off evil company
(d) To kick out evil company.
4. You will be reminded of the seamy side of life if you visit the slum tenements.
(a) the gentler aspects
(b) the impleasant aspects
(c) the softer aspects
(d) the pleasanter aspects

Directions (Question Nos. 87 to 90): Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative our of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer Sheet.

1. Have you even ___ the wolf cry?
(a) hear
(b) heard
(c) hear out
(d) heard of
2. Mrs Hall was prepared to excuse the scientist’s strange habits and ____ temper.
(a) irate
(b) irritation
(c) irritable
(d) irritate
3. Afreen ____ that the weather was very pleasant that day.
(a) remarked
(b) suggested
(c) argued
(d) announced
4. This house ____ ten rooms.
(a) consists of
(b) consists by
(c) consisted with
(d) consists of

Directions (Question Nox. 91 to 94): A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed choose “No Improvement.”

1. Rani has completed her graduation from a reputed university last year.
(a) completed
(b) was completed
(c) No Improvement
2. The terrorist as well as his accomplices was killed in the encounter.
(a) No Improvement
(b) was being killed
(c) were killed
(d) have been killed
3. Inspite of age he is my senior.
(a) He is my senior in regard
(b) In respect of age, he is my senior
(c) He is my senior, in keeping with his age
(d) No Improvement
4. The Councillor behaves as if he is the Chief Minister.
(a) was
(b) were
(c) has been
(d) No Improvement

Directions (Question Nos. 95 to 98): Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

1. (a) pridiliection
(b) predalection
(c) prediliction
(d) predilection
2. (a) restaurant
(b) restaurant
(c) restuarent
(d) restaurant
3. (a) Manoeuvre
(b) manoeuvre
(c) manuvere
(d) manouevr
4. (a) accumulate
(b) accummulate
(c) accummulate
(d) accumullate

Directions (Question Nos. 99 to 100): A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

1. Meera’s mother told her not to forget to buy the milk.
(a) Meera’s mother said “Remember to buy the milk .”
(b) Meera was told by her mother “Buy the milk.”
(c) Meera’s mother reminded her, “Don’t forget to buy the milk.”
(d) Meera’s mother said to her, “You must buy the milk.”
2. I said to him, “Do you definitely need the suit next week?”
(a) I asked him if he needed the suit the next week.
(b) I asked him if he definitely needed the suit the following week.
(c) I asked him if definitely he needed the suit the next week.
(d) I asked him if he definitely need the suit the following week.

Part-III: Quantitative Aptitude

1. The value of x in the equation
tan2π/4 – cos2π/3=x sinπ/4 cosπ/4 tanπ/3
(a) √3/2
(b) 1/√3
(c) 2/√3
(d) 3√3/4

Directions (Question Nos. 102 to 105): The Expenditure of a family in a month is represented by a Pie-Chart. Read it and answer the questions.

1. If the total amount spent in Rs.7,200. Find the amount spent on food?
(a) Rs.6000
(b) Rs.3000
(c) Rs.4500
(d) Rs.1500
2. The ratio of the amount spent on food and clothes?
(a) 4:1
(b) 5:1
(c) 2:5
(d) 4:5
3. The total money spent on clothes and miscellaneous items are:
(a) Rs.900
(b) Rs.3600
(c) None of the option
(d) Rs.2000
4. The % money spent on food compared to house rent is by?
(a) 12.5%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) None of the options
5. A house was sold for Rs. Y by giving a discount of x%, then the list price was:
(a) 100x/100-y
(b) 100y/(1- x/100 )
(c) 100y/100x
(d) 100 y/ 1-x
6. Two positive whole number are such that the sum of the first and twice the second number is 8 and their difference I s2. The numbers are:
(a) 4, 2
(b) 3, 5
(c) 6, 4
(d) 7, 5
7. A vessel contains 60 litres of milk. 12 litres of milk taken out from it and replaced by water. Then again from mixture, 12 litres are again taken out and replaced by water. The ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture is:
(a) 15:10
(b) 16:10
(c) 16:9
(d) 9:5
8. ABCD is a square. Draw a triangle QBC on side BC considering BC as base and draw a triangle PAC on AC as its base such that D~D
Then Area of DQBC/Area of DPAC is equal to:
(a) 2/1
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/2
(d) 2/3
9. A number of boys raised Rs.12,544 for a famine fund, each boy has given as many rupees as there were boys. The number of boys was:
(a) 122
(b) 102
(c) 112
(d) 132
10. 83 1/3% of Rs.90 is equal to 60% of?
(a) Rs.125
(b) Rs.123
(c) Rs.122
(d) Rs.124
11. A hemispherical bowl has internal radius of 6 cm. The internal surface area would be: (take p=3.14)
(a) 226.08 cm2
(b) 225 cm2
(c) 400 cm2
(d) 298.75 cm2
12. If 13+23+………+103=3025, then the value of
23+43+………..+203 is:
(a) 5060
(b) 12100
(c) 7590
(d) 24200
13. The speed of a car is 54 km/hr. What is its speed in m/sec?
(a) 150 m/sec
(b) 194.4 m/sec
(c) 19.44 m/sec
(d) 15 m/sec
14. A fruit seller buys oranges at the rate of Rs.100 per dozen and sells at the rate of Rs.12 per dozen. His gain percent is:
(a) 8 1/3%
(b) 15%
(c) 12%
(d) 20%
15. A contractor was engaged to construct a road in 16 days. After working for 12 days with 20 labours it was found that only 5/8th of the road had been constructed. To complete the work in stipulated time the number of extra labours required is:
(a) 16
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 18
16. If a+(1/b)=1 and b+(1/c)=1 then c+(1/a) is equal to:
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) 0
17. The current ages of Sonali and Monali are in the ratio 5:3. Five years from now, their ages will be in the ratio 10:7. Then, Monali’s current age is:
(a) 15 years
(b) 9 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 3 years
18. If for non-zero x, x2-4x-1=0 the value of x2+1/x2 is
(a) 4
(b) 18
(c) 10
(d) 12
19. By selling an article for Rs.450, I lose 20%. For what amount, should I sell it to gain 20%?
(a) Rs.675
(b) Rs.470
(c) Rs.490
(d) Rs.562.50
20. The simplified value of following is
((3a5b6c3/15)x(5 a b5c4/9)) ¸(10 a2 b c3/27)
(a) 9a2 b c4/10
(b) 3 a b4 c3/10
(c) 1 a4 b4 c10 /10
(d) 3 a4b10c4/10
21. The surface area of a sphere is 616 cm2. The volume of the sphere would be:
(a) 1473 1/3 cm2
(b) 1225 3/5 cm2
(c) 2500 cm2
(d) 2100 cm2
22. Value of the expression:
(1+sin 60o cos 60o/sin 60o + cos 60o)+(1-2 sin 60o cos 60o/sin 60o – cos 60o)
(a) √3
(b) 2√3
(c) 2
(d) 0
23. If a+b=90o then the expression
(tanα/tanβ) +sin2α +sin2 β is equal to
(a) sec2 α
(b) sec2β
(c) tan2β
(d) tan2α

Directions (Question Nos. 125 to 129): Study the following bar graph and answer questions.

1. The percentage increase in production as compared to previous year is maximum in year:
(a) 2002
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1999
2. The number of years, the production of fertilizers was more than average production of the given years is:
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
3. The average production of 1996 and 1997 is exactly equal to the average production of the years?
(a) 2000 and 2001
(b) 1999 and 2000
(c) 1995 and 1999
(d) 1995 and 2001
4. The percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 1997 to 1998 is:
(a) 26%
(b) 25%
(c) 27.5%
(d) 23%
5. The percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2002 compared to that in 1995 is:
(a) 240%
(b) 200%
(c) 180%
(d) 220%
6. If 20 women can lay a road of length 100m in 10 days. 10 women can lay the same road of length 50 m in:
(a) 5 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 15 days
7. If sin 2Θ=√3/2 then the value of sin 3Θ is equal to:
(Take 0o≤Θ≤Q90o)
(a) 1/2
(b) √3/2
(c) 1
(d) 0
8. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube of edge 7 cm?
(use π=22/7)
(a) 121 cm3
(b) 147.68 cm3
(c) 13.6 cm3
(d) 89.8 cm3
9. If a=√3-√2/√3+√2 and b=√3+√2/√3-√2, then the value of (a2/b)+(b2/a)
(a) 970
(b) 1030
(c) 1025
(d) 930
10. In ΔABC, ∠B=60o, and ∠C=40o; AD and AE are respectively the bisector of ∠A and perpendicular on BC. The measure of ∠EAD is
(a) 10o
(b) 12o
(c) 11o
(d) 9o
11. The length of two parallel sides of a trapezium are 15 cm and 20 cm. If its area is 175 sq. cm, then its height is:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 15 cm
12. If p=-0.12,q=q-0.01 & r=-0.015, then the correct relationship among the three is:
(a) p<r<q
(b) q>p>r
(c) p>r>q
(d) p>q>r
13. Two circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm touch externally, then the ratio in which the direct common tangent to the circles divides externally the line joining the centers of the circles is:
(a) 3:5
(b) 2.5:1.5
(c) 1.5:2.5
(d) 5:3
14. The income of a company increases 20% per annum. If its income is Rs.26,64,00 in the year 2012, then its income in the year 2010 was:
(a) Rs. 21, 20, 000
(b) Rs. 28, 20, 000
(c) Rs.28, 55, 000
(d) Rs. 18, 50, 000
15. A train 150 m long passes a km stone in 30 seconds and another train of the same length travelling opposite direction in 10 direction in 10 seconds. The speed of the second train is:
(a) 90 km/hr
(b) 75 km/hr
(c) 25 km/hr
(d) 125 km/hr
16. The average of 13 results is 70. The average of first seven is 65 and that of the last seven is 75, the seventh result is:
(a) 67
(b) 68
(c) 70
(d) 70.5
17. In ΔABC, AB=BC=K, AC=√2K, then ΔABC is a:
(a) Right-angled triangle
(b) Isosceles triangle
(c) Right isosceles triangle
(d) Equilateral triangle
18. If (sin Θ+ cos Θ)/(sin Θ- cos Θ) =3 then the value of sin4 Θ is:
(a) 3/5
(b) 1/5
(c) 2/5
(d) 4/5
19. In an exam the sum of the scores of A and B is 120, that of B and C is 130 and that of C and A is 140. Then the score of C is:
(a) 65
(b) 75
(c) 70
(d) 60
20. The distance between centres of two circles of radii 3 cm and 8 cm is 13 cm. If the points of contact of a direction common tangent to the circles are P and Q, then the length of the line segment PQ is:
(a) 11.5 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 11.9 cm
(d) 11.58 cm
21. If water is freezed to become ice, its volume is increased by 10%, then if the ice melted to water again, its volume will be decreased by:
(a) 9 ½%
(b) 9 1/11%
(c) 8%
(d) 9%
22. The smallest five digit number which is divisible by 12,18 and 21 is:
(a) 10080
(b) 50321
(c) 30256
(d) 10224
23. A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% higher than the cost price and allows a discount of 5%. The percentage of his profit is:
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 14%
24. The compound interest on Rs.12000 for 9 months at 20% per annum, interest being compounded quarterly is:
(a) Rs.2089.70
(b) Rs.1750
(c) Rs.2136.40
(d) Rs.1891.50
25. The outer circumference of a circular race-track is 528 metre. The track is everywhere 14 metre wide. Cost of levelling the track at the rate of Rs.10 per sq. metre is:
(a) Rs.66760
(b) Rs.76760
(c) Rs.77660
(d) Rs.67760
26. If (2a-1)2+(4b-3)2+(4c+5)2=0 then the value of
(a3+b3+c3-3abc)/(a2+b2+c2) is:
(a) 0
(b) 3 3/8
(c) 2 3/8
(d) 1 3/8

Part – IV: General Awareness

1. A light wave is incident over a plane surface with velocity X. After reflection the velocity becomes:
(a) 2 X
(b) X/2
(c) X
(d) X/4
2. The redness in atmosphere at Sunrise and Sunset is due to :
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Reflection of light
(c) Scattering of light
(d) Refraction of light
3. The five key indicators of global climate change of our planet are:
(a) None of the option
(b) Antarctic Sea ice, Oxygen, Rainfall, Drought and Sea level
(c) Artic Sea ice, Carbon dioxide, Global temperature, sea level and Land ice
(d) Sea – level, Rising temperatures, Rainfall, Nitrogen and Artic Sea ice
4. Where Chandragupta Maurya did spent his last days?
(a) Kanchi
(b) Sravanabelogola
(c) Patilputra
(d) Thaneshwar
5. The gas dissolved in water that makes it basic is?
(a) hydrogen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) sulphur dioxide
(d) ammonia
6. In a reaction of the type A + B ———> C + D one could ensure it to be a first order reaction by:
(a) Increasing the concentration of a product
(b) Increasing the concentration of a reactant
(c) Increasing the temperature
7. Which day is celebration as International Yoga Day?
(a) April 23
(b) July 21
(c) September21
(d) June 21
8. Projects tiger programme was launched in:
(a) 1994
(b) 1973
(c) 1975
(d) 1971
9. Who is the author of ‘Indica’?
(a) Hiuen Tsang
(b) Fa-Hien
(c) Selucas
(d) Megasthanese
10. Soldering of two metals is possible because of the property of:
(a) Osmosis
(b) Cohesion
(c) Viscosity
(d) Surface tension
11. Impeachment Proceeding against the President for Violation of the Constitution can be initiated in:
(a) The Rajya Sabha
(b) The Supreme Court
(c) The Lok Sabha
(d) Either House of Parliament
12. Who built the “Purana Quilla”?
(a) Sher Shah
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Akbar
(d) Babar
13. Who wrote ‘Discovery of India’?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) A P J Abdul Kalam
14. In which region of electromagnetic spectrum does the Lyman series of hydrogen atom lie?
(a) Ultraviolet
(b) Infrared
(c) Visible
(d) X- ray
15. Who among the following is not a Bharatnatyam dancer?
(a) Sonal Mansingh
(b) Sitara Devi
(c) Leela Samson
(d) Geeta Ramachandran
16. Which one of the following tribes practices pastoral nomadism?
(a) Boro
(b) Masai
(c) pygmies
17. Whose army did Alexander, the Greek ruler confront on the banks of the river Jhelum?
(a) Dhanananda
(b) Porus
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Ambi
18. Which Indian Newspaper has the largest readership?
(a) The Malayala Manorama
(b) The Hindu
(c) Indian Express
(d) The Dainik Jagran
19. The famous activist Medha Patekar is associated with which movement?
(a) Save the Tiger
(b) Preserve the wet lands
20. Which of the following is the right expansion of ILO?
(a) International law and order
(b) International Labour Organization
(c) Inter-State Lawful Ordinance
(d) Indian Legal Orientation
21. Which state of India has made rain water harvesting compulsory for all houses?
(a) Harayana
(b) Punjab
(c) Maharashtra
22. FORTRAN is called:
(a) Floppy Translator
(b)Format Translator
(c) File Translator
(d) Formula Translator
23. Perfectly inelastic daman is equal to:
(a) Greater than one
(b) Infinite
(c) One
(d) Zero
24. The most suitable soil for the production of cotton is?
(a) Loamy soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Black lava soil
(d) Well drained soil
25. An electrochemical cell which is used as a source of direct electrical current at constant voltage under standard conditions is called a:
(a) Uninterrupted power supply (UPS)
(b) Battery
(c) Power Transmitter
(d) Generator
26. Kanha National Park is located in:
(b) Bihar
27. Yellow complexion, Medium stature, Oblique eye with an epicanthic fold is the characteristic feature of:
(a) Cancosoid
(b) Australodids
(c) Negroid
(d) Mengoloid
28. December 1 is celebrated as:
(1) World AIDS Day
(b) Children Day
(c) UNICEF Day
(d) Indian Navy Day
29. When was RTI Act enacted in India?
(a) 15th August 2005
(b) 15th June 2005
(c) 15th July 2005
(d) 15th March 2005
30. Distant objects are visible as a little out of focus in this condition:
(a) astigmatism
(b) myopia
(c) hypermetropia
(d) presbyopia
31. The 73rd Constitutional amendment act is related to?
(a) Foreign Exchange
(b) R B I
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Panchayat Raj
32. The largest producer of Lignite in India is:
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujrat
(d) Kerala
33. Who was the first speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) Hukum Singh
(b) G V Mavlankar
(c) N. S. Reddy
(d) K. S. Hegde
34. Sex-ratio is calculated as:
(a) No of people per 1, 000 Children in a Country
(b) No of Children per 1, 000 people in a country
(c) No of males per 1, 000 females in a country
(d) No of females per 1, 000 males in a Country.
35. Chromosomes designation of Turner syndrome is:
(a) 44A + XXX
(b) 44A + XXY
(c) 44A + XO
(d) 44A + XYY
36. The biggest oil spill in world history took place in the?
(a) Caspian Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Persian Gulf
(d) South China Sea
37. Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction:
(a) Fission
(b) Fragmentation
(c) Haemapheoditism
(d) Budding
38. The opening ceremony of the ICC Cricket World Cup 2015 was held on 12 February 2015 in which cities of New Zealand and Australia?
(a) Hemilton and Perth
(c) Wellington and Study
(d) Christchrch and Melbourne
39. The area reserve for the welfare of wild life is called?
(a) Botanical Garden
(b) Sanctuary
(c) Forest
(d) National Park
40. Ryder Cup is a famous tournament of:
(a) Cricket
(c) Lawn Tennis
(d) Golf
41. Maximum oxygen is available from:
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Green Forest
(c) Grass lands
(d) Deserts
42. Who is the first woman I P S officer in India?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Bachendri Pal
(d) Kiran Bedi
43. Who was the first Secretary General of U. N. O.?
(a) Dag Hammarskjold
(b) Kurt Waldhein
(c) U-Thant
(d) Try Lie
44. Lender of the Last Resort is:
(a) S B I
(b) NABARD
(c) R B I
(d) I D B I
45. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy?
(a) Denmark
(b) Switzerland
(c) U. S. A.
(d) Japan
46. In 2010 a newspaper published its 70, 000th Which was the newspaper?
(a) The Times of London
(b) The Oxford Gazette
(c) The Washington Post
(d) The Hindustan Times
47. The National Green Tribunal deals with cases relating to?
(a) Issues relating to protection and conservation of historical monuments
(b) Environmental protection and conservation of forest
(c) Criminal offenses
(d) Civil cases
48. Who has been named I C C World Cup 2015 Ambassador?
(a) Sanath Teran Jayasuriya
(b) Allan Robert Border
(c) Schin Tendulkar
(d) Sir Issac Vivian Alexander Richards
49. In operating system, Round Robin Scheduling means:
(a) Repetition policy
(b) A kind of scheduling
(c) A memory allocation policy
(d) A process allocation policy
50. Stalactites & Stalagmites form due to the precipitation of:
(a) MgCl2
(b) CaCl2
(c) CaCO3
(d) MgCO3