SSC CGL 2013 Re-exam Evening Paper Solution

Staff Selection Commission conducts Combined Graduate Level exam for the recruitment of various officer vacancies in India. In 2013, SSC CGL exam paper went leak and SSC officials decided to re-arrange this exam. SSC CGL re-exam was conducted on 20 July 2014 across various exam centers in the nation.

Below are SSC CGL solved paper for Tier-1 exam of 2013 re-test paper. This paper consists of 200 objective type questions with four answer. Only one answer is correct and right answer will be awarded as one mark. Below is the full answer key and solved paper for this SSC exam test.

SSC CGL Tier-1 2013 re-exam Questions & Answers:

PART – A : General Intelligence and Reasoning:

Direction: In question no. 1 to 6, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

1.  Produce : Waste : Contrast : ?

  1. Similar
  2. Correct
  3. Oppose
  4. Contradict

2. Knife : Chef : : ?

  1. Carpenter : Saw
  2. Newspaper : Editor
  3. Oxygen : Man
  4. Plough : Farmer

3. FILM : ADGH : : MILK : ?

  1. ADGF
  2. HDGE
  3. HDGF
  4. HEGF

4. NIATRUC : CURTAIN : : ENILUCSAM : ?

  1. MNIUSLUCE
  2. MASCULINE
  3. MUNISLCUE
  4. MSINUCLUE

5. 112 : 222 : : 442 : ?

  1. 884
  2. 886
  3. 552
  4. 882

6. 08 : 09 : : ? : 25

  1. 64
  2. 16
  3. 27
  4. 36

Directions: In questions no. 7 to 12, select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.

7. Options

  1. Pomegranate
  2. Guava
  3. Papaya
  4. Mango

8. Options

  1. Gautam Buddha
  2. Jesus Christ
  3. Hazrat Muhammad
  4. Sri Ramkrishna Dev

9. Options

  1. 38
  2. 95
  3. 76
  4. 64

10. Options

  1. 95, 152
  2. 76, 133
  3. 114, 57
  4. 38, 144

11. Options

  1. AEI
  2. EIO
  3. IOU
  4. OUG

12. Options

  1. AFKPU
  2. EJOTY
  3. INSXC
  4. MRVBG

13. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
Question: 1. Cloth, 2. Thread, 3. Dress, 4. Cotton, 5. Weaving
Options

  1. 3,5,2,4,1
  2. 4,2,5,1,3
  3. 3,1,5,4,2
  4. 2,5,4,3,1

14. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary:
Question: 1. Insensible, 2. Insensate, 3. Insentinent, 4. Insensitive, 5. Instrument
Option:

  1. 2,1,4,3,5
  2. 2,3,4,1,5
  3. 5,1,2,4,3
  4. 4,2,1,5,3

15. In the following question, letters and numbers are in accordance with a pattern. Discover the pattern and pick the correct answer from the answer choices to fill in gaps.
AB_4EF_8I_ _ 12MN _P

  1. 2,5,P,8,K
  2. 3,7,J,11,O
  3. 6,7,L,6,K
  4. 5,7,I,9,K

Directions: In questions no. 16 to 18, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

16. hqva, clqv, ? yhmr

  1. gpvy
  2. gkuz
  3. gpuz
  4. govz

17.  2, 5, 12, 27, ?

  1. 56
  2. 57
  3. 58
  4. 59

18. 3,5,35,10,12,35,17, ?, ?

  1. 22,35
  2. 35,19
  3. 19,35
  4. 19,24

19. Anjali is the daugheterof the only sister of Smita’s mother. How is Smita related to Anjali?

  1. Daughter
  2. Cousin
  3. Mother
  4. Aunt

20. In a test, 3 marks are given to each correct answer and 2 marks are cut for each wrong answer. In that test of 50 questions, a student got 60 marks. How many questions did he solve correctly?

  1. 26
  2. 18
  3. 32
  4. 39

21. The present ages of Gaurav and Saurav are in the ratio of 6 : 7 respectively. After 6 years their ages will be in the ration of 15 : 17, respectively. What is Gaurav’s present age?

  1. 28 years
  2. 25 years
  3. 24 years
  4. 23 years

22. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
STANDARDIZATION

  1. STATION
  2. DIAS
  3. DARE
  4. RATION

23. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.
REMINISCENCE

  1. INSANE
  2. SINCERE
  3. MANNERS
  4. SERVICE

24. How many meaningful words of 3 or more letters, can be formed with the letters of the word ‘EMAIL’?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6 or more

25. If a certain code ‘TIGER’ is coded as ‘UHHDS’, then the code for ‘LION’ would be

  1. MJPM
  2. MJNO
  3. KJPO
  4. MHPM

26. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you encode ACCEPT?

  1. 455978
  2. 547978
  3. 554978
  4. 735961

27. If ‘four tall boys’ is coded as 519, ‘Tarun is a good father’ is coded as 20749 and ‘Tarun has four toys’ is coded as 2358, then ‘Tarun has four pencils, can be coded as

  1. 2591
  2. 2356
  3. 2354
  4. 2537

28. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs to balance the given equation.
4*7*1*5*3*7*47

  1. x – ÷ + x =
  2. – + ÷ x – =
  3. + x – ÷ x =
  4. ÷ x + – + =

29. 410 + x + y – 305 = 171. If x = 2y, then find the value of y.

  1. 22
  2. 23
  3. 66
  4. 84

30. Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
96+31=32, 76+73=14, 88+96=?

  1. 21
  2. 03
  3. 13
  4. 28

31. X stands for addition, V stands for subtraction, U stands for equal to, ˄ stands for division, Σ stands for multiplication, ∂ stands for >, σ for <. When expression is true?

  1. 3 X 8 V 2 U 12 ˄ 3
  2. 13 V 12 X 9 V 2 ∂ 5 Σ 1
  3. 3 Σ 2 Σ 4 U 2 X 7 V 3
  4. 2 Σ 3 Σ 4 σ 51 ˄ 3

Directions: In questions. no. 21 to 34, select the mission number from the given responses.

32. 108   17   9
208  31    8
245   ?     7

Option:

  1. 25
  2. 32
  3. 35
  4. 40

33. 4   5   6
2   3   7
1   8   3
21 98  ?
Option:

  1. 94
  2. 76
  3. 73
  4. 16

34. 36 25 64
16  9  36
4    1   ?
Option:

  1. 25
  2. 16
  3. 49
  4. 64

35. Bhairav walked 30 ft towards North, then took left turn and walked 15 ft. He again took a left turm and walked 30 ft. How far and in which direction is Bhairav from the starting point?

  1. 30 ft to the East
  2. 15 ft to the North
  3. 15 ft to the West
  4. 45 ft to the South

36. Kunal and Vikram start from a fixed point Kunal moves 4 km to the South then turn left and moves 3 km. Vikram moves 3 km towards West, then turns right and move 4 km further. How far apart are they now?

  1. 10 km
  2. 14 km
  3. 7 km
  4. 13 km

37. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
Statements:
All vehicles need fuel to run.
Bullock carts can run without fuel.

  1. Only conclusion I follows
  2. Only conclusion II follows
  3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  4. Both conclusions I and II follow

38. Questions:

  1. The Oberio Mall has more stores than Raghuleela Mall.
  2. The Growell Mall has fewer stores than Raghuleela Mall.
  3. The Oberio Mall has more stores than Growell Mall.

If Statements I and II are true, then Statements III is
Options:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. Uncertain
  4. Vague

39. Which number will occur on the face opposite to 4?

————————————-

  1. 3
  2. 1
  3. 6
  4. 5

40. Identify the answer figure from, which the pieces given in the question figure have been cut.
Question figure:
———————-

 

Answer figures:

——————————-

41. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

—————————

  1. 16
  2. 32
  3. 36
  4. 40 or more

42. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Mountain, Earth, Moon?

————————-

43. Indicate which figure will best represent the relationship among the three:
Omnivorous, Bear, Crow

————————–

44. Among the teachers, find out the dedicated teachers who are honest.

———————————–

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 5

Directions: In questions no. 45 and 46, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

45. Question figure :

————————

Answer figures:

——————————-

46. Question figure:

————————–

Answer figure:

—————————

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure:

——————-

Answer figure:

—————————–

48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the questions figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figures:

———————-

Answer figures:

————————-

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the question figure?
Question figure:

———————-

Answer figures:

50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternative are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and row of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. and ‘P’ can be represented by 59, 66 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the st for the given word:
AERO

———————–

  1. 02,65,31,68
  2. 33,77,23,98
  3. 21,65,24,67
  4. 40,56,43,55

PART – B : GENERAL AWARENESS

51. Consumers are likely to get a variety of goods under

  1. Perfect competition
  2. Monopoly
  3. Imperfect competition
  4. Oligopoly

52. Under WTO, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Legislation was passed in August.

  1. 1999
  2. 2000
  3. 2001
  4. 2002

53. The level of economic activity of an economy largely depends on

  1. Aggregate Demand in the economy
  2. Aggregate Supply in the economy
  3. Aggregate Investment in the economy
  4. Aggregate Savings in the economy

54. Price discrimination is a features of

  1. Monopoly
  2. Monopsony
  3. Duopoly
  4. Oligopoly

55. If the increase in demand is more than the increase in supply, the price will

  1. increase
  2. decrease
  3. fluctuate
  4. remain the same

56. The first law officer of the Government of India is

  1. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
  2. The Law Minister
  3. The Attorney-General of India
  4. None of these

57. Who called the newspapers ‘The Bible of Democracy”?

  1. Ernest Barker
  2. Herman Finer
  3. Walter Lippmann
  4. Lindsay

58. ‘Sovereignty’ is derived from ‘Superanus’ which is

  1. a Greek word
  2. a French word
  3. a Latin word
  4. None of the above

59. In which portion of the Constitution, were the goals of the Indian Constitution incorporated?

  1. Directive Principles i.e. Part IV
  2. Fundamental Rights i.e. Part III
  3. Preamble
  4. None of the above

60. The Constitution of India was adopted on

  1. 26th November, 1949
  2. 15th August, 1949
  3. 9th December, 1946
  4. 26th January, 1950

61. Of the following Congress leaders, who was not a ‘Moderate”?

  1. Lala Lajpat Rai
  2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  3. Bipin Chandra Pal
  4. All of the above

62. Russian Revolution broke out in the year

  1. 1916
  2. 1917
  3. 1918
  4. 1919

63. Mahavira preached in which language?

  1. Magadhi
  2. Ardha-Magadhi
  3. Suraseni
  4. Apbhransh

64. Buddha can best be described as a/an

  1. atheist
  2. theist
  3. materialist
  4. agnostic

65. Which are the four major languages of the Dravidian family?

  1. Bangla – Tamil – Kannada – Malayalam
  2. Malyalam – Bangla – Marathi – Tamil
  3. Tamil – Telgu – Kannada – Malayalam
  4. Marathi – Kannada – Malayalam – Telugu

66. Lanolin, a fatty substance used in manufacturing of cosmetics, is obtained from

  1. Sheep
  2. Cattle
  3. Pig
  4. Horse

67. Law of Exclusive Economic Zone is related to

  1. Agriculture
  2. Industry
  3. Fishing
  4. Dairying

68. Which of the atmospheric layers prevents penetration of great amounts of ultraviolet radiation?

  1. Ionosphere
  2. Ozonosphere
  3. Stratosphere
  4. Troposphere

69. On which of the following rivers is Bangkok located?

  1. Chao Phraya
  2. Chindwin
  3. Salween
  4. Mekong

70. Which of the following is a most modern surveying technique?

  1. Aerial Photography
  2. Geographical Information System (GIS)
  3. Satellite Remote Sensing
  4. Geodetic Survey System

71. Antibodies combine with antigens

  1. at variable regions
  2. at constant regions
  3. only if macrophages are present
  4. only if macrophages are absent

72. The diseases caused by virus include

  1. Measles, Syphilis, Rabies, Cholera
  2. Polio, Syphilis, Chicken-pox, Mumps
  3. Cholera, Tuberculosis,Meningitis, Syphilis
  4. Measles, Small-pox, Mumps, Rabies.

73. Which one of the following combinations is correct?

  1. Allium cepa – Cruciferae
  2. Acacia – Caesalpinicaceae
  3. Pyrethrum  – Compositae
  4. Brassica – Liliaceae

74. The antibiotic Penicillin was discovered by

  1. George Stevenson
  2. Alexander Fleming
  3. Thomas Alva Edison
  4. Boyle

75. The group of bacteria which reduces the soil fertility is

  1. nitrifying
  2. denitrifying
  3. ammonifying
  4. detoxifying

76. Tobacco smoke contains

  1. CO2, CO and Tar
  2. CO2, and Tar
  3. CO, Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon and Tar
  4. CO2, CO, Hydrocarbon and Tar

77. Atomiser works on the principle of

  1. Pascal’s law
  2. Bernoulli’s theorem
  3. Ideal gas equation
  4. Avogadro’s hypothesis

78. Line spectrum is produces by

  1. H2 – Hydrogen molecule
  2. H – Atomic hydrogen
  3. N2 – Nitrogen molecule
  4. O2 – Oxygen molecule

79. When a body is executing simple harmonic motion and passes through the mean position, it has

  1. Both kinetic energy and potential energy minimum
  2. Both kinetic energy and potential energy maximum
  3. Minimum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
  4. Maximum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy

80. When forward bais is applied to a junction diode, it

  1. increases the potential barrier
  2. decreases the potential barrier
  3. reduces the majority – carrier current to zero
  4. reduces the minority-carrier current to zero

81. “The Stored Program” concept was introduced by

  1. John von Neumann
  2. Steve John
  3. Thomas Hook
  4. John Miller

82. Which of the following is not a search engine?

  1. altavista.com
  2. excite.com
  3. infoseek.com
  4. intel.com

83. Which of the following gases has the highest average velocity at a certain temperature?

  1. Oxygen
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Neon
  4. Methane

84. The universal solvent is

  1. Aqua regia
  2. Hydrochloric acid
  3. Water
  4. Alcohols

85. Dry bleach is done by

  1. Hydrogen peroxide
  2. Sulphur dioxide
  3. Chlorine
  4. Ozone

86. Cryolite is

  1. KAl Si3O8
  2. 3NaF AlF3
  3. Al2O3
  4. Al(OH)3

87. The “coarse particles” denoting air quality for breathing are termed as

  1. PM 1.0
  2. PM 2.0
  3. PM 3.0
  4. PM 10.0

88. The snow leopard population in India is estimated to be

  1. 100 – 200
  2. 400 – 500
  3. 400 – 700
  4. 400 – 1000

89. A group of interacting living organism sharing a populated environment is

  1. Ecosystem
  2. Community
  3. Biome
  4. Biosphere

90. “CETP” stands for

  1. Course on Environment Training and Projects
  2. Common Effluent Treatment Plant
  3. Continental Energy Temperature and Precipitation
  4. Central Environmental Treatment Plant

91. A film “Sadma” was remade in Hindi based on a Tamil film “Moondram Pirai”. The director of the film is also known as “Creator’s Creator”, and his name is

  1. Kamal Haasan
  2. Venkatesh
  3. Mohan Lal
  4. Balu Mahendra

92. The Postal Department of India has recently on 10th February, 2014 released a stamp in memory of singer named

  1. Jagjit Singh
  2. Lata Mangeshkar
  3. Bhupen Hazarika
  4. Daler Mehndi

93. The designer-creator of AK-47 assault rifle, Mikhail Kalashnikov is native to

  1. Russia
  2. Sweden
  3. Italy
  4. France

94. A book entitled “The Satanic Verses” is written by

  1. Wendy Doniger
  2. Salman Rushdie
  3. Taslima Nasrin
  4. Kamal Haasan

95. How many States were there in India as per the 15th Lok Sabha update during February 2014?

  1. 25
  2. 27
  3. 28
  4. 29

96. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. Sher-e-Punjab : Lala Lajpat Rai
  2. Nightingale of India : Pandita Ramabai
  3. Lokhitwadi : Gopal Hari Deshmukh
  4. Lokmanya : Bal Gangadhar Tilak

97. Mother Teresa was awarded Nobel Prize for Peace in the year

  1. 1975
  2. 1979
  3. 1989
  4. 1995

98. Consumer Protection Act was enacted in

  1. 1984
  2. 1986
  3. 1988
  4. 1989

99. Identify the film that was based on the work by Munshi Premchand.

  1. Pyaasa
  2. Paa
  3. Prineeta
  4. Sadgati

100. Which of the following is not correct?

  1. NMA – National Monuments Authority
  2. MSP – Maximum Support Price
  3. ASI – Archaeological Survey of India
  4. UNDP – United Nations Development Programme

PART – C : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101.  The number of numbers between 140 and 259, both included, which are divisible by 7 is

  1. 17
  2. 37
  3. 18
  4. 16

102. The LCM of 2/3, 3/4, 4/5, 5/6, 6/7 is

  1. 60/2 = 30
  2. 120/2= 60
  3. 10/7 = 10/7
  4. 60/4 = 15

103. 24 men complete a job by working 7 hours per day for 27 days. 14 men will complete the same work by working 9 hours per day for

  1. 20 days
  2. 25 days
  3. 36 days
  4. None of the above

104. A can do a piece of work in 24 days, B in 32 days and C in 64 days. All begin to do it together but A leaves after 6 days and B leaves 6 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days they worked for is

  1. 20 days
  2. 8 days
  3. 16 days
  4. 24 days

105. A village road is to be constructed by a team of 250 workers. After 12 days it was found that only 2/7th part of the work was completed. To completed the rest in another 25 days, how many more workers should be employed?

  1. 53 workers
  2. 52 workers
  3. 55 workers
  4. 50 workers

106. Find the altitude of a rhombus whose area is 42 cm2 an perimeter 140 cm.

  1. 12 cm
  2. 14 cm
  3. 10 cm
  4. 8 cm

107. If three sides of a right – angled triangle are (2q+1) cm, (2q-1) cm and 2q cm respectively, then the area of the triangle is

  1. 2 sq. cm
  2. 6 sq. cm
  3. 2q sq. cm
  4. 6q sq. cm

108.  If the distance from the centroid to any of the vertices of an equilateral triangle is

2clip_image002[12] cm, then the area of the triangle will be

  1. 18 sq. cm
  2. 9clip_image002[12] sq.cm
  3. 18clip_image002[12] sq. cm
  4. 4clip_image002[12] sq. cm

109. A trader allows two successive discounts of 20% and 10%. If he gets Rs. 108 for an article, find its marked price.

  1. Rs. 130
  2. Rs. 140
  3. Rs. 150
  4. Rs. 138

110. The list price of a digital electronic watch is Rs. 800. A customer gets two successive discounts on the list price, the 1st being of 10% Calculate the 2nd discount, if the customer pays Rs. 612 for it.

  1. 14%
  2. 13%
  3. 15%
  4. 12%

111. An automobile dealer buys an old motorcyle marked at Rs. 25,000 with 20% and 5% off successively. He spends Rs. 1,000 on its repairs an sells the motorcyle for Rs. 25,000. Find his gain percent.

  1. 20%
  2. 30%
  3. 25%
  4. 28%

112. The ratio of the sides of a triangle are 3 : 4 : 5. If the perimeter of the triangle is 36 cm, then the sides are

  1. 3 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm
  2. 8 cm, 12 cm, 16 cm
  3. 9 cm, 12 cm, 15 cm
  4. 10 cm, 12 cm, 14 cm

113. A purse contains 225 currency notes consisting of 5-rupee, 10-rupee and 50-rupee currencies in the ration 3 : 7 : 5 respectively. out of this, Rs. 25 is spent and the left out money is exchanged for 500-rupee currency notes. Then the number of 500-rupee currency notes is

  1. 15
  2. 10
  3. 5
  4. 20

114. If the average of x, x – 8, x + 2 and 4x + 4 is 10, then the product of the numbers is

  1. 2688
  2. -2688
  3. 10560
  4. -10560

115. A person travels three equal distances with the speed of x km/hr; y km/hr; z km/hr respectively. Then the average speed of the whole journey, in km/hr, is

  1.     2xyz
    xy – yz + zx
  2.     xyz
    xy + yz + zx
  3.     2xyz
    xy – yz + zx
  4.     3xyz
    xy + yz + zx

116. A man sells a T.V. Set for Rs. 3450 and makes a profit of 15%. He sells a second T.V. Set at a loss of 10%. If on the whole he neither gains nor loses, find the cost price of the second T.V. set.

  1. Rs. 3450
  2. Rs. 3018
  3. RS. 4500
  4. RS. 2016

117. In a class, 55% students passed in Chemistry and 60% passed in Maths, 50% passed in both of these subjects. If 70 students failed in both Chemistry and Maths, then what is the total number of students?

  1. 700
  2. 350
  3. 650
  4. 200

118. How does a train 110 metres long, running at the rate of 36 km an hour, take to cross a bridge 132 metres in length?

  1. 24.3 seconds
  2. 24.2 seconds
  3. 24.1 seconds
  4. 24.0 seconds

119. A man is walking at a speed of 12 km per hour. After every km he takes rest for 12 minutes. How much time will he take to cover a distance of 36 km?

  1. 10 hours
  2. 7 hours
  3. 3 hours
  4. 4 hours

120. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on Rs. 4000 for 3 years at 5% is

  1. Rs. 30.50
  2. Rs. 60.50
  3. Rs. 63.50
  4. Rs. 70.00

121. If x + y – 5 then the value of  (x – 2)3 + (y – 3)3 is

  1. 1.25
  2. 0
  3. 8
  4. 64

122. If the relation 6x – 9 – a (x + 1) + b ( x – 2) be an identity of x, then the values of a and b are

  1. a = 2, b = 3
  2. a = 3, b = 2
  3. a = 5, b = 1
  4. a = 1, b = 5

123.  If x = 3 + 2clip_image002[16], then the value of x4 + clip_image004 is

  1. 1024
  2. 1154
  3. 1734
  4. 1254

124. If x + y + z = 0, then the value of (x + y)3 + (y +z)3 + (z + x)3 – 17xyz is
10 (x + y) (y +z) (z +x)

  1. 3 xyz
  2. 4
  3. 0
  4. 2

125. The distance between two points (7,2) and (-5,2) on the graph paper is

  1. 12 units
  2. 2 units
  3. 4 units
  4. 14 units

126. If x =    a    , y =    b   and z =    c    then the value of xy + yz + 2xyz is
b+ c          a+c                 a+b

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. (a + b) (b + c) (c + a)

127. If x + y = 4, x – y = 3, find out the value of 16xy (x2 + y2).

  1. 175
  2. 350
  3. 600
  4. 125

128. Find the coefficient of x2 in the expansion of (x2 + x + 1) (x2 – x + 1).

  1. +1
  2. -1
  3. +2
  4. -2

129. The difference between the exterior and interior angles at a vertex of a regular polygon is 150°. The number of sides of the polygon is

  1. 10
  2. 24
  3. 15
  4. 28

130. In a triangle, ABC, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 40° and AD and AE are respectively the bisector of ∠A and the perpendicular drawn to BC. The ∠EAD is

  1. 40°
  2. 30°
  3. 20°
  4. 10°

131. O is the orthocentre of the triangle ABC. If ∠BOC – 100°, then ∠BAC is

  1. 70°
  2. 60°
  3. 90°
  4. 80°

132. Two circles touch each other externally at P. AB is a common tangent to the circles touching them at A and B. The measure of ∠APB is

  1. 45°
  2. 60°
  3. 90°
  4. 75°

133. Three sides of a triangle are a2 – 1, a2 + 1 and 2a respectively. Then the greatest angle of the triangle is

  1. 90°
  2. 45°
  3. 60°
  4. 30°

134. In a triangle ABC, the external bisectors of ∠B and ∠C meet at O. If ∠A = 70°, then the value of ∠BOC is

  1. 55°
  2. 44°
  3. 22°
  4. 33°

135. The vertical angles of two isosceles triangles are same and the ratio of their areas is 9:16. Then the ratio of their heights is

  1. 9 : 16
  2. 16: 9
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 4 : 3

136. AD is the perpendicular drawn from A upon the side BC of ABC. If AD2 = BD.DC, then the value of ∠BAC is

  1. 30°
  2. 45°
  3. 60°
  4. 90°

137. If tan2 – cos2 π/4 cos π/4 tan π/3 then  x =

  1. -1
  2. 1/2
  3. clip_image002[20]
  4. clip_image002[22]/2

138. The value of (1 + tanθ + secθ) (1+cotθ – cosecθ) is

  1. -1
  2. 1
  3. -2
  4. 2

139. The value of sinθ and cosθ is always les than 1 in 0 < θ < 90°. Then the value of sinθ + cos θ is

  1. always less than 1
  2. always greater than 1
  3. 0
  4. always equal to 1

140. sin2 20° + sin2 68° + cot2 68° is equal to

  1. cosec2 22° cot2 68°
  2. sin2 22° cot2 68°
  3. sin2 68° cot2 68°
  4. sin2 22° tan2 68°

141. IF sin2 x + sin2 y = 1, then the value of cot(x + y) is (assume that 0 < x, y < 90°)

  1. 1
  2. 0
  3. 2
  4. 3/2

142. Evaluate : sin6 θ + cos6 θ + 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. -1
  4. 2

143. A kite is flying at height of 75m from the level ground, attached to string inclined at 60° to the horizontal. The length of the string is

  1. 50clip_image002[22] m
  2. 50/clip_image002[22] m
  3. 50clip_image002[20] m
  4. 50/clip_image002[20] m

Direction: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions no. 144 to 147.

——————————

144. Earnings on 150 kg of paddy sold by farmer B are approximately what percent of the earnings on the same amount of rice sold by the same farmer?

  1. 65
  2. 69
  3. 73
  4. 60

145. If farmer A sells 350 kg of rice, 150 kg of corn and 250 kg of Jowar, how much would he earn?

  1. Rs. 19425
  2. Rs. 18500
  3. Rs. 15585
  4. Rs. 18375

146. What is the average price per kg of Bajra by all the farmers together?

  1. Rs. 25.10
  2. Rs. 24.50
  3. Rs. 25.00
  4. Rs. 23.40

147. If farmer D and farer E, both sell 240 kg of Bajra each, what would be the respective ratio of their earnings?

  1. 15 : 14
  2. 11 : 13
  3. 14 : 15
  4. 13 : 15

Directions: The following pie chart shows the different angles of sectors corresponding to the number of students in various classes in a “Hobby School” having 540 total number of students. Study the pie chart and answer the questions no. 148 to 150.

————————

148. The number of students attending the paper cutting class is

  1. 70
  2. 80
  3. 65
  4. 75

149. The percentage of students attending the “Glass Work” class is

  1. 30%
  2. 20%
  3. 45%
  4. 60%

150. The ratio of the students attending the computer class to painting class is

  1. 6 : 5
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 5 : 4
  4. 3 : 2

PART – D : ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions: In questions no. 151 to 155, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval (image ) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A,B,C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

151. Fifty years has passed (A) / since man first ventured (B) / into outer space. (C) / No error. (D)

152. In his book (A) / Churchill describes (B) / that historical first meeting with Roosevelt. (C) / No error. (D)

153. The ant who was nearby (A) / walked forward and bit the hunter (B) / sharply in the ankle (C) / No error. (D)

154. They can promise (A) / an experience (B) / you won’t never forget (C) / No error. (D)

155. The dress that the (A) / girl wore was (B) / more attractive than the other girls (C) / No error. (D)

Directions: In questions no. 156 to 160, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval ((image) in the correct Answer Sheet.

156. Some people regard the world as an>__________________

  1. allusion
  2. illusion
  3. elision
  4. imitation

157. I can __________ him without qualifications.

  1. commend
  2. praise
  3. suggest
  4. recommend

158. She let her horse ____________ in the field.

  1. loose
  2. loosely
  3. lose
  4. loosen

159. It is hoped that a ___________ will be reached in the meeting.

  1. comparison
  2. compromise
  3. compression
  4. statement

160. We are fortunate to have extremely and visionary leaders.

  1. complex
  2. complaisant
  3. competent
  4. competitive

Directions : In questions no. 161 to 163, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best express the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

161. Voracious

  1. hasty
  2. thirsty
  3. greedy
  4. hungry

162. Scintillating

  1. interesting
  2. burning
  3. glittering
  4. moving

163. Transient

  1. transparent
  2. feeble
  3. fanciful
  4. fleeting

Directions: In questions no. 164 to 166, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

164. Flexible

  1. rigid
  2. gentle
  3. rough
  4. blunt

165. Obscure

  1. gloomy
  2. unpleasant
  3. dark
  4. clear

166. Virtue

  1. vice
  2. anger
  3. ill-temper
  4. fault

Directions: In questions no. 167 to 171, four alternatives are given for the Idiom / Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom / Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

167. The performance of the lead actors in the play brought the house down.

  1. made the audience leave
  2. made the audience cry
  3. made the audience request an encore
  4. made the audience applaud enthusiastically

168. People like her, who are salt of the earth, are very difficult to find.

  1. good, honest and ideal
  2. extraordinary
  3. one with the common folk
  4. dedicated to better the world

169. The Alpha and Omega

  1. a Shakespearean play
  2. a Greek song
  3. a Swiss watch
  4. beginning and end

170. Jane earned pin money working part-time as a waitress.

  1. additional money
  2. a small amount of money
  3. money to be spent only for luxuries and treats
  4. saved money

171. The present manner of delimitation has been done in gerrymanderingway.

  1. in a judicial and fair way
  2. in a manipulative and unfair way
  3. in a dictative manner like the Germans
  4. in a legal and constitutional manner

Directions: In questions no. 172 to 181, a sentence / part of the sentence is underlined. Belown are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no. improvement is needed, your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

172. Shakespeare is greater than any other poet.

  1. greater than all poets
  2. greater than many poets
  3. greater as any other poet
  4. No improvement

173. I saw the woman whom you said lived next door.

  1. which you said lived next door
  2. that you said live next door
  3. who you said lived next door
  4. No improvement

174. A thousand rupees are all that he wants.

  1. is
  2. are
  3. was
  4. No improvement

175. I have never been hearing from him since he left for America.

  1. was never heard
  2. have never heard
  3. have never been hearing
  4. No improvement

176. The camera I bought recently is not convenient.

  1. difficult to use
  2. easy to use
  3. hard to use
  4. No improvement

177. You are a mechanic, aren’t you?

  1. are
  2. wasn’t
  3. isn’t
  4. No improvement

178. Sincere workers do not rest till they have reached perfection in their work.

  1. they having reached
  2. they had achieved
  3. they have achieved
  4. No improvement

179. The interesting tale had its beginning more than fifty years ago.

  1. initiated
  2. began
  3. was started
  4. No improvement

180. One of her friends had just got down from the bus.

  1. landed from
  2. alighted from
  3. arrived in
  4. No improvement

181. Loose tea leaves are kept in a tea box.

  1. caddy
  2. tin
  3. cosy
  4. No improvement

Directions: In questions no. 182 to 188, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words / sentences and indicate it by blacking the appropriate oval (image) in the Answer Sheet.

182. A word or practice that has gone out of use

  1. absolute
  2. outdated
  3. old-fashioned
  4. absolete

183. Favouritism granted in politics or business to relatives

  1. nepotism
  2. hedonism
  3. redtapism
  4. monotheism

184. A person who collects coins

  1. numismatist
  2. philatelist
  3. coin collector
  4. ornithologist

185. A supplement to a will

  1. adjunct
  2. effusion
  3. codicil
  4. furlough

186. Estimation of a thing’s worth

  1. goodness
  2. appraisal
  3. beliefs
  4. pay

187. To free completely from blame

  1. clear
  2. exonerate
  3. release
  4. let go

188. A person who works for an employer for a fixed period of time in order to learn the particular skills needed in their job

  1. worker
  2. employee
  3. apprentice
  4. labourer

Directions: In questions no. 189 to 190, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

189. Options

  1. cleptomaniac
  2. kleptomaniac
  3. cleptomeniac
  4. kleptomaniec

190. Option

  1. silhouette
  2. silohutte
  3. silhoutte
  4. sihouete

Directions: In questions no. 191 to 200, you have two brief passage with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each questions out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval (image) in the Answer Sheet.

Passage I (Q.Nos. 191 to 195)

India is chiefly an agricultural land. The cultivation of crops depends on a proper supply of water throughout the year. Since olden times, large parts of our country have suffered from occasional periods of too much rain and those of drought. People have known that if surplus flood water could be stored away for use during the dry season, these problems will be solved. Unfortunately, they had neither the knowledge nor the means to do much in this direction. Whatever little they knew, they tried to put into practice. They dug cannals to drain water from perennial rivers. This was heavy and expensive work and practicable over only a small area. Large tanks were excavated and small dams  built to hold back floods. But it was not possible to do anything on a countrywide scale.

191. How has our country suffered since olden times?

  1. It has suffered from heavy rains or severe droughts.
  2. It has suffered under the British Rule
  3. It has suffered due to the caste system
  4. It has suffered due to the zamindari system

192. Why were the people unable to solve the problem?

  1. They were indifferent to the problem
  2. They lacked knowledge and the means to solve the problem
  3. Inadequate finance
  4. Absence of will power

193. The term ‘perennial’ means

  1. flowing once a year
  2. flowing throughout the year
  3. flowing during the monsoon
  4. rivers flowing into canals

194. India’s economy is chiefly

  1. Industrial
  2. Mixed
  3. Agricultural
  4. Socialistic

195. ‘Excavated’ means

  1. to make caves
  2. to dig
  3. to flood
  4. to fill

Passage II (Q.Nos. 196 to 200)

Stop reading this passage for a few seconds and look around the room you’re in. Without any perceived effort at all on your part, your brain will register everything within the scope of your vision. But where does all that information – known as sensory memory – go? Well, pretty quickly. it vanishes.

So what if you want to hold on to these fleeting memories for longer? The answer is abvious: you need to pay conscious attention to the sensory input we are receiving. By focusing on it, you can take the information to the next memory level, and turn it into working  – or short – term  – memory. This enables you, say, to remember the words you’ve just read so that what follows makes overall sense.

True to its name, short – term memory lasts for only a few seconds to a few minutes, but is plays a vital role in our daily lives, allowing us to write down doctor’s appointments, make everyday decisions or have a conversation (think about it : you have to recall what someone said to you five seconds ago in order to respond). Of course, there is some information you need to keep for days, months or even years. What you need here is long – term memory. With this, the potential is there to remember something forever.

196. The information that your brain stores within a fleeting moment is called

  1. sensory memory
  2. short-time memory
  3. long-term memory
  4. memory level

197. The information stored in your sensory memory generally

  1. stays with you for a short while
  2. disappears completely
  3. lingers in your brain
  4. stays with you forever

198. To convert a sensory memory into a short-term memory we must

  1. focus on the information
  2. concentrate on what we are looking at
  3. be consiciously attentive to sensory input
  4. ignore a sensory input completely

199. Short – term memory allows us to

  1. remember an event during childhood
  2. remember simple things like appointments
  3. remember plenty of dates and numbers
  4. remember events for many years

200. Long-term memory helps us

  1. remember a thing for a long time
  2. forget things for a long time
  3. erase short-term memory
  4. forget unimportant things

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